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Clinical (EINC-Drug-Admi)
Bs Nursing (Tarlac State University)
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Evaluation Exam
(EINC)
1. Before a birth, the delivery area
should be at what range of
temperature?
A. 20-23° C
C. 30-33° C
B. 25-28° C
D. 35-38° C
2. The delivery room at the correct
temperature should have?
A. Ceiling fans circulating the air
B. Draft-free areas with privacy
C. Separate cribs for the newborns
D. Narrow delivery beds visible to
all
3. After the baby is born, what
should
be
the
first
action
performed?
A. Clamp and out the cord
B. Dry the baby
C. Suction the baby's mouth and
nose
D. Do foot printing
4. During drying and stimulation for
the baby, your quick check shows
that the baby is crying. What is
your next action?
A. Suction the baby's mouth and
nose
B. Clamp and cut the cord
C. Do skin-to-skin contact
D. Start breastfeeding
5. If a newborn is breathing or
crying, drying should be done for at
least?
A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds
A. All newborns
B. All newborns during drying
C. All newborns whose airway is
blocked
D. All newborns after the cord is cut
8. Benefits of drying include:
A. Stimulation of breathing
B. Stimulation of the startle reflex
C. Removal of the vernix caseosa
D. Removal of amniotic fluid
9. What are the benefits of
immediate skin-to-skin contact?
A.
Decreases
mother's
body
temperature
B. Dries the baby
C. Speeds up removal of vernix
D. Allows colonization with good
bacteria
10. A health worker working alone,
attending to the needs of both
mother and baby at delivery,
should wear how many pairs of
gloves?
A. Three pairs of gloves
B. Two pairs of gloves
C. One pair of gloves
D. No gloves
11. When should the first gloves be
removed?
A. Any time after perineal support
B. Immediately before drying the
baby
C. Immediately before handling the
baby
D. None of the above
12. When should the cord be
clamped after birth?
A. Immediately after birth
B. When the cord pulsations stop
C. Between 5-10 minutes
D. Immediately after delivery of the
placenta
6. During the first few seconds
after birth, the health worker
should assist breathing if the
newborn is not breathing and is?
A. Meconium stained
B. Premature
C. Bluish
D. Limp or flaccid
13. At what length from the
umbilical base should the first
clamp be applied?
A. As close as possible to the base
B. Two cm from the base
C. Three cm from the base
D. Five cm from the base
7. Suctioning of the mouth and
nose should be done in?
14. At what length from the
umbilical base should the second
clamp be applied?
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A. As close as possible to the base
B. Two cm from the base
C. Three cm from the base
D. Five cm from the base
15. Where should the cord be cut?
A. As close as possible to the base
of the umbilicus
B. As close as possible to the first
clamp
C. As close as possible to the
second clamp
D. As close as possible to midway
between the two clamps
16. Milking the cord towards the
baby is:
A. Done to boost his/her iron stores
B. Done to increase his/her oxygen
levels
C. Done to decrease blood spilling
upon cutting
D. Not recommended
17. Active Management of the Third
Stage of Labor includes:
A. Intramuscular injection of 10 “U”
of oxytocin to the mother
B. Controlled traction of the cord
with counter-traction on the uterus
C. Gentle uterine massage
D. All of the above
18. When is oxytocin injected into
the mother's arm or gluteal
muscle?
A. Before the delivery of the baby
and the placenta
B. After ensuring no second baby
but before placenta is out
C. After delivery of the baby and
placenta
D. After examining the placenta for
missing parts
19. When should the baby be
bathed?
A. Immediately after the cord
cutting
B.
Immediately
after
the
identification band is put on
C. After 90 minutes of skin-to-skin
contact
D. After at least 6 hours
20. Where should the identification
band be placed?
A. Around the baby’s wrist
B. Around the newborn’s ankle
C. Taped to the newborn’s chest
D. A and B
21. After birth, the eyes are wiped
during drying. Eye care should be
done when?
A. As soon as the placenta is out
B. As soon as baby starts opening
his/her eyes
C. After vitamin K prophylaxis
D. After the baby has located the
breast
22. Proper cord care includes:
A. Trimming within the designated
cord care area
B. Covering with cloth binder
C. Applying 70% isopropyl alcohol
D. Leaving the cord exposed to air
dry
23. When is the newborn ready to
breastfeed?
A. Within few seconds after birth
B. Within 5 minutes after birth
C. Within 20-60 minutes after birth
D. None of the above
24.
When
is
exclusive
breastfeeding
of
the
healthy
newborn started?
A. New born shows feeding cues
B. Mother is awake
C. Mother signs consent
D. Pediatrician makes the feeding
order
25. Protection against any infection
is maximized if a baby starts
breastfeeding within the first:
A. Ten minutes of life
B. Hour of life
C. Day of life
D. None of the above
26. Breastfeeding cues or signs
that a newborn is ready to feed
include when the newborn’s:
A. Toes fan out when the sole is
stroked
B. Tongue protrudes out of the
mouth
C. Head is turned to one side with
stretching of the arm
D. Arms stretch out and end in an
embracing motion
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27.
A
newborn
is
properly
positioned for breastfeeding if
his/her:
A. Neck is turned to either side
B. Neck is slightly flexed or bowed
C. Chin is touching to breast
D. Nose is about two inches from
the breast
labor
has
been
shown
to
significantly:
A.
Increase
requests
for
analgesia/anesthesia
B. Shorten the length of labor
C. Increase rates of cesarean
section
D. Decrease postpartum pain
28. A newborn is properly attached
for breastfeeding if his/her:
A. Lower lip is turned inward
B. Lower lip is turned outward
C. Lips make smacking sounds
D. Lips are pursed or tight
34. As soon as the baby is
delivered, what is the first thing the
skilled birth attendant should do?
A. Place the baby on the mother's
chest
B. Call out the time of birth and sex
C. Suction the baby's mouth and
nose
D.
Administer
oxytocin
intramuscularly
29
The
newborn should
prepared for breastfeeding
giving:
A. Sterile water
B. Grace water
C. Cow's milk
D. None of the above
be
by
30.
Which
of
the
following
vaccinations should be given in the
newborn period?
A. Anti-measles
B. Anti-hepatitis B
C. Anti-hepatitis A
D. Anti-diphtheria
31. You are called to attend to a
newborn about to be delivered in a
taxi outside health facility. Your first
appropriate action should be:
A. Milk the cord towards the
newborn
B. Clamp the cord immediately
C. Do skin-to-skin contact
D. Dry the baby thoroughly
32. While the mother and newborn
are together/non-separated in skinto-skin contact, the mother should
be in semi-upright position so that
the:
A. Mother's head is higher than the
rest of her body
B. Baby's head is higher than the
rest of the baby's body
C. Mother can see her surroundings
D.
Baby
can
see
his/her
surroundings
33. Allowing a mother to have a
companion of her choice during
35. You are the only health worker,
who has just delivered a baby at
the lying-in center. After putting the
baby skin-to-skin on the mother's
abdomen, what should you do
next?
A. Dry the first set of gloves, inject
oxytocin, remove the first set of
gloves, clamp the cord
B. Dry the first set of gloves,
remove the first set of gloves,
inject oxytocin, clamp the cord
C. Remove both sets of gloves,
inject oxytocin, have the father
clamp/cut the cord
D. Remove both sets of gloves,
have father inject oxytocin, while
you clamp /cut the cord
36. Active Management of the Third
Stage of Labor (AMTS) refers to a
combination of actions during the
third stage of labor to prevent:
A Uterine rupture
B. Uterine atony
C. Uterine inversion
D. Uterine prolapse
37. The components of the active
management of the third stage of
labor (AMTSL), in order, are:
A. Controlled cord traction, oxytocin
IM, uterine massage
B. Oxytocin IM, controlled cord
traction, uterine massage
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C. Oxytocin IV, Methergine IM,
controlled
cord
traction,
ice
compress
D. Methergine IM, oxytocin IM,
controlled cord traction, uterine
massage
38. You have given oxytocin to a
mother after excluding a second
baby. Before applying controlled
traction, you should:
A. Wind the cord around a forcep
B. Wait for a strong uterine
contraction
C. Check the mother's blood
pressure
D. Check the mother’s heart rate
39. While doing traction of the
cord, to prevent uterine inversion,
you should:
A. Feel for umbilical pulsations
B. Explore the uterine cavity with
your hands
C. Press on the fundal area
D. Press on the above of the pubic
bone (symphysis pubis)
40. After delivery of the placenta,
you should ensure that the uterus
is firm by:
A. Putting an ice pack the lower
abdomen
B. Gently massaging the uterus
C. Stimulating the nipples
D. Giving a dose of “methergin”
B. To become strong
C. To combat infection
D. Newborn need to experience
vitamin k
44. Newborn who is limp and not
breathing must be:
A. Roomed-in at once
B.
Suctioned
in
the
nose
immediately
C. Ventilated and resuscitated
D. Stimulated by drying and
suctioning
45. Before handing the newborn to
her/his mother, which of the
following the nurse must do first:
A. Check mother and baby
identification
B.
Give
the
importance
of
breastfeeding
C. Bath the baby
D. Weigh the baby
Final Exam (EINC)
1. Which of the following steps in
immediate newborn care NOT
commonly
takes
place
after
immediate and thorough drying?
A. Non-separation of mother and
infant for early breastfeeding
B. Suctioning newborn's mouth and
nose
C. Properly timed cord clamping
41. Active management of the
Third Stage of Labor prevents
which of the following?
A. Severe postpartum blood loss of
one liter or more
B. Need for emergency blood
transfusions for the mother
C. Need for other "uterotonics" like
methergin
D. All of the above
D. Early skin-to-skin contact
42. Eye prophylaxis is routinely
given to all newborns to prevent:
A. Eye infection
B. Blindness
C. Sore eyes
D. A and B
D. All of the above
43. Why Vitamin k is given to a
newborn?
A. Newborn lacks vitamin k
2. Monitoring the mother/newborn
dyad should include which of the
following?
A. Vital signs, including BP of the
mother
B. Signs of excessive bleeding
C. Signs of breathing difficulty
3. Healthy newborn will typically
complete the first breastfeed in:
A. The first 1-2 minutes of life
B. The first 1-2 hours of life
C. The first 1-2 days of life
D. The 1-2 weeks of life
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4. Immediately before and after
examining a newborn, it is very
important to:
A. Wash hands thoroughly with
soap and water
B. Turn on the droplight over the
newborn
C. Thoroughly remove the vernix
D. Bring the newborn to nursery
5. One of the following is not a part
of essential newborn care within 90
minutes to 8 hours:
A.
Hepatitis
administration
B
vaccine
B. Physical Examination
C. Vitamin K injection
D. Bathing
6. A preliminary examination of the
newborn is done in the 30 seconds
while drying the baby. Ideally, the
second, more thorough physical
examination is done:
A.
After
the
baby's
full
breastfeeding completed
B. Before the baby starts the first
breastfeeding
C.
During
the
baby's
first
breastfeeding
D. None of the above
7. One of the following is not an
acceptable way to keep a small
baby warm:
A. Keep the room temperature not
more than 28° C and free of air
draft
B. Keeping the baby always in skinto-skin contact with mother/father
C. Bathing the baby in a very warm
room with warm water
D. Using a cap and extra blankets
for additional warmth
8. The first baby of a teenager
mother is breathing well, pink and
crying.
The
baby's
head
is
elongated like a cone head. After
drying and skin-to-skin contact, the
teenager mother is worried. You
explain to her that her baby's head
most likely is:
A. Elongated because of prolonged
pushing during delivery
B. Become round by the time he
starts school
C. Elongated like her own genetic
condition
D. Become rounder very soon
9. A newborn's umbilical stump
becomes soiled. It should be
cleaned with?
A. 70% isopropyl alcohol
B. 30% alcohol
C. Soap and water
D. Lactic acid
10. Which of the following is the
recommended
site
of
administration of the birth dose of
hepatitis B vaccine?
A. Front of the thigh
B. Side of the thigh
C. Lower outer area of buttocks
D. A and B
11. Which of the following is a true
statement about the birth dose of
hepatitis B vaccines?
A. The birth dose protects the
newborn from other types of
jaundice or hepatitis
B. Only newborns of mothers with
history of hepatitis are given these
birth doses
C. The birth dose protects the
newborn
from
the
virus
in
colostrum
D. All newborns should be given
these doses
12. The second stage of labor ends
with:
A. Delivery of the placenta
B. Delivery of the baby
C. Crowning
D. Full cervical dilatation
13. The third stage of labor ends
with the delivery of the:
A. Amniotic fluid
B. Placenta
C. Baby
D. Head
14 One of the following is not a
true statement on the proper
preparation before vaccination:
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A. Assemble all materials for
vaccination on a clean, clutter-tree
surface
B. Wash hands immediately before
and after every
injection
C. Clean the newborn’s skin with
soap and water
D. Gloving is necessary at all times
15. Of the many vitamins and
nutrients
that
can
be
recommended as supplementation
for the pregnant woman, the most
important are:
A. Vitamins A and D
B. Vitamins B and C
C. Zinc and magnesium
D. Iron and foliate
16. Allowing a mother to have a
companion of her choice during
labor
has
been
shown
to
significantly:
A.
Increase
requests
for
analgesia/anesthesia
B. Increase rates of cesarean
section
C. Shorter the length of labor
D. Decrease postpartum pain
17. As soon as the normal baby is
delivered, what is the first thing the
skilled attendant should do?
A. Place the baby on the mother’s
chest
B. Call out the time of birth and sex
C. Suction the baby’s mouth and
nose
D.
Administer
oxytocin
intramuscularly
18. Active management of the
Third stage of labor refers to
combination of actions during the
third stage of labor to prevent:
A. Uterine rupture
B. Uterine atony
C. Uterine inversion
D. Uterine prolapse
19. You have given oxytocin to a
mother after excluding a second
baby. Before applying controlled
cord traction, you should:
A. Wait for a strong uterine
contraction
B. Check the mother's blood
pressure
C. Wind the cord around a forcep
D. Check the mothers heart rate
20. Active management of the third
stage of labor prevents which of
the following?
A. Severe postpartum blood loss of
one liter or more
B. Need for emergency blood
transfusion for the mother
C. Need in methergin
D. All of the above
21. Which of the following eye
preparations
are
effective
prophylaxis agents?
A. Silver Nitrate
B. Erythromycin ointment
C. Tetracycline/Terramycin
D. All of the above
22.
Which
of
the
following
sequences of prophylaxis measures
is appropriate?
A. Vitamin K, Hepatitis A, Hepatitis
B, Eye prophylaxis
B. Eye prophylaxis, Hepatitis A,
Hepatitis B, Vitamin K
C. Eye prophylaxis, Vitamin K,
Hepatitis B, BCG
D. Vitamin K, Hepatitis B, BCC, Eye
prophylaxis
23. You are called to attend to a
newborn about to be delivered in a
taxi outside the health facility. Your
first appropriate action should be:
A. Milk the cord towards the
newborn
B. Clamp the cord immediately
C. Dry the baby thoroughly
D. Do skin-to-skin contact
24. You are attending to a mother
and newborn being moved from the
delivery table to the stretcher,
what is the best position for her
baby to be in?
A.
Supine
on
the
mother’s
abdomen
B. Supine beside the mother’s
trunk
C. Prone on the mother’s abdomen
D. Prone on the mother’s chest
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25. You are the nurse in the OB
ward after a mother delivers by
NSD. You should monitor:
A. The mother and newborn every
15 minutes for the first hour
B. The mother and newborn every
30 minutes for the first hour
C. The mother every 15 minutes for
the first hour
D. The mother every 30 minute for
the first hour
26. You and the staff who just
delivered a baby in a barangay
health station. The baby is not
breathing and has poor muscle
tone. You should:
A. Start resuscitation with a bag
and a mask
B. Tell the father to start mouth-tomouth
C. Tell the mother the baby is dead
D. Run outside to get a jeepney
27. The first stage of labor refers to
the period from onset of true labor
contractions to:
A. Full cervical dilatation
B. Delivery of the placenta
C. Delivery of the baby
D. Crowning
28. A woman comes to you in
preterm labor two months before
her due date. You will expect that
Dr. Magaling will prescribe:
A.
Dexamethasone
or
betamethasone intramuscularly
B.
Prednisone
or
methylprednisolone
intramuscularly
C.
Dexamethasone
or
betamethasone intravenously
D.
Prednisone
or
methylprednisolone intravenously
29. Which of the following is a
correct
schedule
for
giving
antenatal steroids in preterm labor?
A. Betamethasone 12 mg IM q 24
hrs x 2 doses
B. Dexamethasone 12 mg IM g 24
hrs x 2 doses
C. Dexamethasone 6 mg IM q 12
hrs x 2 doses
D. Betamethasone 6 mg IM a 12
hrs 4 x doses
30. Routine intravenous
fluid
administration during the first
stage of labor may:
A. Interfere with mother's moving
about
В.
Delay
giving
emergency
medications
C.
Decrease
delivery
room
expenses
D. Promote hypothermia
31. You are the only health worker
who has just delivered a baby at
the lying-in center. After putting the
baby skin-to-skin on the mother's
abdomen, you should:
A. Dry the first set of gloves, inject
oxytocin, remove the first set of
gloves, clamp the cord
B. Dry the first set of gloves,
remove the first set of gloves,
inject oxytocin, clamp the cord
C. Remove both sets of gloves,
have father inject oxytocin, while
you clamp/cut the cord
D. Remove both sets of gloves,
inject oxytocin, have the father
clamp/cut the cord
32. While doing traction of the
cord, to prevent uterine inversion,
you should:
A. Press on the above the pubic
bone (symphysis pubis)
B. Explore the uterine cavity with
your hands
C. Feel for umbilical pulsations
D. Press on the fundal area
33. After delivery of the placenta,
you should make the uterus firm
by:
A. Putting an ice pack at the lower
abdomen
B. Gently massage the uterus
C. Giving a dose of "methergin"
D. Stimulating the nipples
34. To make sure there are no
retained placental fragments after
a vaginal delivery, you should:
A. Inspect the placenta for missing
parts immediately after it is
delivered
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B. Insert a long forceps and explore
the uterine cavity
C. Insert your arm and explore the
uterine cavity
D. Inspect the placenta for
completeness
35. Active management of the
Third Stage of Labor prevents
which of the following?
A. Need for emergency blood
transfusions for the mother
B. Severe postpartum blood loss of
one liter or more
C. Aired for other uterotonics" like
methergin
D. All of the above
36. The components of the active
management of the third stage of
labor (AMSL), in order, are:
1. Controlled cord traction and
countertraction
2. Uterine massage
3. Oxytocin IM
4. Oxytocin IV
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,1,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 3,2,1
37. In cesarean section deliveries,
which of the 4 steps in immediate
newborn care commonly takes
place
after
immediate
and
thorough drying of a normal
newborn?
A. Non-separation of mother and
infant for early breastfeeding
B. Suctioning newborn’s mouth and
nose
C. Properly timed cord clamping
D. Early skin-to-skin contact
38. To prevent uterine atony, in the
new guidelines, which of the
following actions should not be
done?
A. An icepack should be put on the
woman's abdomen
B. Oxytocin is injected within one
minute after delivery
C. Controlled cord traction and
countertraction
D. Gentle uterine massage
39. Mrs. Aganak, G1P0, was
admitted at TPH due to labor pain
contractions. You monitored her
progress of labor and graphed it in
the partograph. You noticed that
you graph crosses the action line.
What will be your nursing actions?
1. Nothing to worry
2. Prepare the patient for cesarean
section
3. Reassess your patient
4. Notify the doctor at once
A. 3,4,2
B. 1,3,4
C. 1,2,3
D. 4,3,1
40. During drying and stimulation
of the baby, your quick check
shows that the baby is crying. What
is your next action?
A. Suction the baby's mouth and
nose
B. Do skin-to-skin contact
C. Clamp and cut the cord
D. Start breastfeeding
41. Macy Kog, a G2P1 came in for
prenatal check- up. She is on her
9th month of pregnancy. While on
her way to the birthing center, she
noticed that her skirt was soaked
and wet. She had bouts of uterine
contractions. At the center IE was
done at 10:00 am and revealed 4
cm. cervical dilatation. Ideally how
many per hour will be the dilatation
of the cervix?
A. 4 cm
B. 1 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 5 cm
42. She was admitted then at the
labor room. When will be next IE to
be done?
A. 11:00 am
B. 12:00 noon
C. 1:00 pm
D. 2:00 pm
43. Internal Examination (IE) should
be done at least how many times
to a parturient client?
A. Every hour
B. 2 times
C. 8 times
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D. 5 times
D. None of the above
44. In graphing the progress of
labor, the plotting stays at or
before the alert line. What does
this mean?
A. The parturient client needs
emergency referral to the nearest
hospital
B. The parturient client will be sent
home and not yet time to deliver
C. The parturient client has normal
progress of labor
D. The parturient client has
delayed progress of labor.
49. Which of the following needs to
be graphed and recorded in the
partograph?
A. Progress of labor
B. Maternal well being
C. Fetal well being
D. All of the above
45. The plotting of the progress of
labor crosses the yellow part up to
the action line. What does this
mean?
A. The progress of labor is not
significant
B. The progress of labor is
abnormal
C. The progress of labor is delayed
D. The progress of labor is normal
45. Utilizing the partograph, where
do you start plotting the progress
of labor?
A. Between the alert line and action
line
B. Anywhere in the partograph
C. Action line
D. Alert line
47. In plotting the progress of
labor, when do you start plotting
the partograph?
A. Assess the result of the lE which
should be at full dilatation of the
cervix
B. Assess the result of the IE which
should be at 1 cm cervix dilated
C. Assess the result of the lE which
should be accompanied by true
labor contraction
D. Assess the result of the IE which
should be 4 cm cervix dilated
48. A parturient mother is in active
labor in which of the following,
except:
A. When the cervix is 4 cm dilated
B.
When
uterus
contracts
adequately to 3-4 contractions in
10 minutes
C. When the cervix is fully dilated
50. You are the RHU nurse assigned
to Mrs. Anakonda in labor that
remains in latent phase in the next
8 hours and where labor is
prolonged, what will be your
nursing action?
A. Continue monitoring the POL
B. Instruct the mother to remain in
the birthing center
C. Tell the husband to bring home
his wife and not time to deliver yet
D. Transfer the mother to the
nearest hospital.
Evaluation Exam (Drug
Administration)
1. What are oral medications?
A. Medications given to patient by
mouth
B. Medications given through a
nebulizer
C. Medications given through an IV
D. Medications given via gastric
tube
2. Which type of oral medication is
made of compressed powders?
A. Tablets
B. Capsules
C. Liquids
D. Suspensions
3. Which type of oral medication is
a powdered medications encased
in a dissolvable cover.
A. Capsule
B. Tablet
C. Enema
D. Liquid
4. Which of the following is NOT a
common route for administering
medication?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
D. Intraosmolar
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5. The route describes how the
medication is actually given to or
taken by the patient. Which of the
following is true regarding the
medication routes?
A. Most medications administered
by the nurse are by injection
B. Drugs administered by the
sublingual route have a relatively
high absorption rate
C. All tablets are administered by
the oral route.
D. The route can be determined by
the nurse
6. What is used to minimize local
skin irritation by sealing the
medication in muscle tissue?
A. Z-track method
B. As you prepare it
C. Some combined with steroids
D. Right drug
7. You have been instructed to
administer
oral
medication
(Ranitidine 150mg) to a patient.
What is the minimum of times the
nurse should check the medication
label before administering this
drug?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
8. Name the calibrated cylinder
that holds medication.
A. Solution
B. Adverse reaction
C. 15-30 seconds
D. Barrel
9. Name the part of a syringe that
is pushed to move the fluid out.
A. Barrel
B. Otic drugs
C. Plunger
D. Delivered at 45-degree angle
10. Which device attaches
needle to the barrel.
A. Sublingual
B. Hub
C. 15-30 seconds
D. Right route
the
11. The six rights for medication
administration
A. Right medication, right route,
right date, right documentation,
right dose, right time
B. Right patient, right medication,
right time, right prescription, right
date, and documentation
C. Right dose, right route, right
date,
right
symptoms,
right
document, right medication
D. Right dose, right patient, right
formulation, right documentation,
and right medication
12. Name the injection that is given
into the subcutaneous tissues for a
sustained release. (insulin)
A. Drug-drug interaction
B. Vaccines
C. Barrel
D. Subcutaneous
13. To ensure that key steps are
followed
during
administering
medication, the nurse should
A. Verify the date the prescription
was written
B. Verify the amount of medication
that has already been used
C. Check for discoloration and
expiration of the drug
D. Confirming with the patient’s
physician that he issued the
prescription
14. A patient requires a high dose
of
a
new
antihypertensive
medication
because
the
new
medication has a significant firstpass effect. What does this mean?
A. The medication must pass
through the patient's bloodstream
several times to generate a
therapeutic effect
B. The medication passes through
the renal tubules and is excreted in
large amounts
C. The medication is extensively
metabolized in the patient's liver
D. The medication is ineffective
following the first dose and
increasingly effective with each
subsequent dose
15. If a family member tells me to
give a medication, I can.
A. True
B. False
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C. Maybe
D. Strongly Agree
16. When giving a PRN medication
the nurse should:
A. See if they have a PRN ordered
B. Check when the last time they
had it
C. A and B
D. None of the above
17. Chart only the medications you
gave once you gave them.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. Strongly Agree
18. Never administer medications
that are not labeled or unmarked.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. Strongly Diagree
19. The student nurse is identifying
the patient, he does it properly if:
select all that apply
A. The student nurse asks patient's
name
B. Check name on patient’s
identification bracelet
C. Verify patient’s identification
with a staff member who knows
patient
D. Check the name on patient's
door
20. Check on patient within 30
minutes of drug administration to
verify response to medication.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. Strongly Disagree
21. The student nurse is performing
an intramuscular injection in the
vastus lateralis, the student nurse
is correct in performing the
procedure if:
A. To find the arm injection site,
make an imaginary box on the
upper leg. Find the arm. One
hand’s width below the groin
becomes the upper border of the
box
B. To find the thigh injection site,
make an imaginary box on the
upper leg. Find the groin. One
hand’s width below the groin
becomes the upper border of the
box
C. To find the thigh injection site,
make an imaginary box on the
upper leg. Find the groin. One
hand’s width upper the groin
becomes the lower border of the
box
D. To find the arm injection site,
make an imaginary box on the
upper leg. Find the groin. One
hand’s width upper the groin
becomes the upper border of the
box
22. How many angle is the proper
way
on
how
to
inject
intramuscularly?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
23. This site is commonly referred
to as the outer upper quadrant and
is contraindicated in children.
A. Vastus Lateralis
B. Dorso Gluteal
C. Deltoid
D. Ventro Gluteal
24. What is the proper way to
perform Gluteas medius
A. Draw an imaginary line between
the two bones. After locating the
centre of the imaginary line, find a
point one inch toward the head.
This is where (X) to insert the
needle
B. Draw an imaginary line between
the three bones. After locating the
centre of the imaginary line, find a
point one inch toward the body.
This is where (X) to insert the
needle
C. Draw an imaginary line between
the two bones. After locating the
middle of the imaginary line, find a
point two inch toward the body.
This is where (X) to insert the
needle
D. Draw an imaginary line between
the three bones. After locating the
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middle of the imaginary line, find a
point two inch toward the body.
This is where (X) to insert the
needle
25.
This
site
is
used
for
immunizations/non-irritating
medications, hence vaccines which
are usually small in volume tend to
be administered
A. Vastus Lateralis
B. Dorso Gluteal
C. Deltoid
D. Ventro Gluteal
26. The clinical instructor is
demonstrating the proper way on
how to inject IM in the deltoid, she
is correct if she states that
A. Find the knobby top of the arm
(acromion process). The top border
of an inverted triangle is two finger
widths down from the acromion
process
B. Find the knobby top of the arm
(acromion process). The bottom
border of an inverted triangle is
three finger widths down from the
acromion process
C. Find the knobby top of the arm
(acromion process). The top border
of an inverted triangle is three
finger widths up from the acromion
process
D. Find the knobby top of the arm
(acromion process). The bottom
border of an inverted triangle is
two finger widths up from the
acromion process
27. The site provides the greatest
thickness
of
gluteal
muscle
(consisting of both the gluteus
medius and gluteus minimus), is
free of penetrating nerves and
blood vessels, and has a narrower
layer of fat of consistent thinness
than is present in the dorsogluteal.
A. Vastus Lateralis
B. Dorso Gluteal
C. Deltoid
D. Ventro Gluteal
28. Student Nurse Ana is teaching
her classmate about the proper
way on how to inject via
ventrogluteal intramuscularly, if
she stated that
A. Find the posteror iliac crest.
Place the palm of your hand over
the trochanter. Point the first or
index finger toward the anterior
iliac crest. Spread the second or
middle finger toward the back,
making a ‘V’. The thumb should
always be pointed toward the front
of the leg. Always use the index
finger and middle finger to make
the ‘V’
B. Find the anterior iliac crest. Place
the palm of your hand over the
acromion. Point the first or index
finger toward the anterior iliac
crest. Spread the second or middle
finger toward the back, making a
‘V’. The thumb should always be
pointed toward the front of the leg.
Always use the index finger and
middle finger to make the ‘V’
C. Find the anterior iliac crest. Place
the palm of your hand over the
trochanter. Point the first or index
finger toward the anterior iliac
crest. Spread the second or middle
finger toward the back, making a
‘V’. The thumb should always be
pointed toward the front of the leg.
Always use the index finger and
middle finger to make the ‘V’
D. Find the posterior iliac crest.
Place the palm of your hand over
the acromion. Point the first or
index finger toward the anterior
iliac crest. Spread the second or
middle finger toward the back,
making a ‘V’. The thumb should
always be pointed toward the front
of the leg. Always use the index
finger and middle finger to make
the ‘V’
29.
Which
value
does
not
determine where to give an
intramuscular injection?
A. Age
B. Blood pressure
C. Body mass
D. Amount of medication
30. The direction of movement the
arm does when the deltoid muscle
flexes is:
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A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Abduction
D. Adduction
Final
Exam
Administration)
(Drug
1. Which of the following is the
preferred location of intramuscular
(IM) injection in infants?
A. Deltoid
B. Dorsogluteal region
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Rectus femoris
2. The nurse is preparing to
administer an intramuscular (IM)
injection to a 4.8-pound infant. The
nurse should position the needle at
which angle?
A. 30 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 90 degrees
3. The new pediatric nurse has just
given a suppository to a 5-year-old
boy. He has a bowel movement 7
minutes post administration. Which
action should nurse take next?
A. Consult pharmacy
B. Examine the stool for the
suppository
C. Give another full dose of the
suppository
D. Inform the physician that the
child has had a bowel movement
4.
The
geriatric
nurse
is
administering nightly medications
to a 65-year-old woman with
dysphagia. The patient is able to
swallow crushed medications with
thickened liquids. Which of the
following medications should the
nurse not crush?
A. Pantoprazole ER
D. Acetaminophen
C. Multivitamins
D. Potassium Chloride
5. The pediatric nurse is summoned
in a room by the parents of a 2year-old child. The peripheral IV
line has been removed by the
patient. When starting a new line,
the nurse carefully chooses the
placement. The nurse should
attempt to start the IV where?
A. As lateral as possible
B. As distal as possible
C. As medial as possible
D. As proximal as possible
6. The pediatric nurse must
convince a 4-year-old boy to take
his medication. Which phrase is the
most acceptable?
A. "Your mother and I need you to
take your medicine now."
B. "It is time to take your medicine.
It tastes just like candy!"
C. "If you take your medicine, I will
give you a soda pop!"
D. "If you don't take your medicine
now, you will need to take a timeout"
7. When performing a blood
transfusion, which of the following
procedures should not be adhered
to in order to ensure safe delivery
of blood product to the patient?
A.
The
blood
should
be
administered with isotonic solutions
B. The preferred gauge of the
needle should be between 18 to 20
gauge to allow for improved flow
C. The tubing should be of a "Y
type" to allow for fluid and blood
product simultaneous infusion
D. Positively identify the patient
identification.
8. An 80-year-old male with a
history of congestive heart failure,
diabetes, osteoarthritis and early
stage kidney failure, has been
living
independently
but
is
becoming more forgetful. He is
admitted to the hospital to
evaluate repeated episodes of
hyperglycemia (high blood glucose)
QUESTION:
Considering
the
information
provided
in
this
scenario, which factor would best
help you assess this patient's
capacity for self-care and the
potential
for
successful
drug
therapy if he continues to live
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alone and must administer his own
medications?
A. The patient's age
B. The patient's memory
C. Results from the patient's lab
tests
D. The patient's med history
9. An 80-year-old male with a
history of congestive heart failure,
diabetes, osteoarthritis and early
stage kidney failure, has been
living
independently
but
is
becoming more forgetful. He is
admitted to the hospital to
evaluate repeated episodes of
hyperglycemia
(high
blood
glucose).
QUESTION: Given this clinical
scenario, which of the factors listed
below (if known) would identify this
patient as being at high-risk for
adverse reactions to drug therapy?
A. The presence of diabetes
B. The fact that the patient lives
independently
C. Kidney dysfunction
D. The fact that the patient has
been admitted to the hospital
10. Before administering a med to
a
patient,
what
baseline
assessment
data
would
be
important to collect?
A. Chemical stability of a med
B. Patient med history
C. Trade name of the med
D. All of the above
11. A patient sustains significant
burns
to
the
skin
and
is
experiencing fluid shit associated
with edema in the fluid overload
phase. The nurse would anticipate
that this will interfere most with
which phase of pharmacokinetics?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
Which nursing actions would be
most appropriate for ensuring
patient safety with medication that
has a low therapeutic index?
A. Monitoring a patient’s urine
output
B. Assessing vital signs hourly
C. Maintaining strict isolation
precautions
D. Monitoring serum peak and
trough levels
13. Most drugs are metabolized in
the:
A. Kidney
B. Small intestine
C. Liver
D. brain
14. Which drug form is most rapidly
absorbed from the GI tract?
A. Capsule
B. Sublingual
C. Suspension
D. Tablet
15. Disintegration of enteric-coated
tablets occur in the:
A. Colon
B. Liver
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach
16. Usually food _______ dissolution
and absorption of a drug
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Has no effect on
D. Prevents
17. Which body organ is the major
site of drug metabolism?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lung
D. Skin
18.
Which
route
of
drug
administration has the greater
bioavailability?
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Subcutaneous
19. The absorption of a drug given
intramuscularly can be affected by:
A. Food in the stomach
B. The patient's age
C. Blood supply to the area injected
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D. Fat content of the tissue being
injected
20. Enzyme metabolism of drugs
can be influenced by all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Weight
B. Other drugs
C. Age
D. Genetics
21. Receptor Z is responsible for
initiating
vasoconstriction.
A
patient's baseline vital signs are
36.8, 118/72, 76, 16. Which of the
following would reflect a patient
response to a drug acting as an
antagonist at receptor Z?
A. Heart rate 58
B. Heart rate 92
C. Blood pressure 104/60
D. Blood pressure 152/88
22.
Which
of
the
following
laboratory values would indicate
that a client is at an unusually high
risk for a toxic reaction to a highly
protein-bound drug?
A. Serum protein 9.1 g/dl (normal
6.6-7.9 g/dI)
B. Serum calcium 2.1 mg/dl
(normal 8.9-10.1 mg/dl)
C. Serum albumin 2.3 g/dl (normal
3.3-4.5 g/dl)
D. Serum glucose 180 mg/dl
(normal 70-110 mg/dl)
23. The study of the tie course of
drug
absorption,
distribution,
metabolism, and excretion is
called:
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Drug concentration
C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Kinetic homogeneity
24.
The
application
of
pharmacokinetic principles to the
safe and effective therapeutic
management of drugs in an
individual patient is known as:
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Clinical Pharmacokinetics
C. Clinical Pharmacodynamics
D. Pharmacokinetics
25. Pharmacodynamics refers to
the relationship of drug:
A. Dose to drug concentration in
plasma
B. Dose to drug concentration at
the receptor site
C. Concentrations to drug effect
D. Dose to drug effect
26. One factor that may result in
variability
in
plasma
drug
concentrations after the same drug
dose is given to different patients
includes variations in:
A. Drug absorption
B. The EC50 of the drug
C. Drug mechanism
D. Drug distribution
27. An example of a situation that
would not support therapeutic drug
monitoring with plasma
drug
concentrations would be one in
which:
A. A wide variation in plasma drug
concentrations is achieved in
different patients given a standard
drug dose
B. The toxic plasma concentration
is many times the therapeutic
concentration range
C. Correlation between a drugs
plasma
concentration
and
therapeutic response is positive
D. The plasma drug concentration
is achieved in comparison with the
given drug dose
28.
Good
absorption
through
capillary bed under the tongue, fast
absorption, not affected by firstpass metabolism
A. Sublingual
B. Intradermal
C. Intramuscular
D. Oral route
29. The client's ability to take oral
medications will be hindered by:
A. Age
B. Dental carries
C. Dysphagia
D. Dysaterexia
30. An unexpected effect of the
drug is known as a(n):
A. Side effect
B. Adverse effect
C. Toxic reaction
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D. Allergic reaction
31. The extent to which a drug is
absorbed and transported to target
tissue is:
A. Steady-state accumulation
B. Therapeutic drug levels
C. Bioavailability
D. Distribution
32. Which of the following muscles
is a possible site for IM injections?
A. Outer aspect of the hip
B. Shoulder
C. Vastus gluteus
D. Vastus lateralis
33.
When
performing
an
assessment to determine which
medications can be used, which of
the following elements is most
important?
A. Physical Examination
B. Allergies
C. Presence of illness
D. Weight
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
38. The volume of SC medication
must be no more than:
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1.0 mL
C. 1.5 mL
D. 3.0 mL
39. The name selected by the
original manufacturer based on the
chemical structure of the drug is
the:
A. Chemical name
B. Drug name
C. Generic name
D. Trade name
40. As a knowledgeable nurse, you
know that the following are part of
the five rights except:
A. Right dose
B. Right route
C. Right drug
D. Right room
34. When two drugs given together
have an effect equal to the sum of
their
respective
effects,
the
interaction is known as:
A. Potentiated
B. Antagonized
C. Agonist
D. Additive
35.
When
performing
an
assessment about medication, the
drug history should include:
A. Complete vital signs
B. Client's goal of therapy
C. Reason for medication
D.
Administration
of
OTC
medications
36. When deciding on what time of
day to give medications, the nurse
pays closest attention to the
client's habits regarding:
A. Eating
B. Sleeping
C. Elimination
D. Activity
37. Which of the following will
determine nursing interventions for
a client on medication?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
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