Practice_exam_Geol_2001
NOTE: The answer to most questions are given at the end!
Chapter 1: Fundamental concepts (Answers in red)
1. Why is human population growth often considered the foremost environmental problem?
a. the Earth will run out of open land space within the next 50 years
b. increasing population strains resources and creates additional wastes
c. there is no way to provide food for additional people
d. there is insufficient oxygen production on Earth for more than 10 billion people
2. What is exponential growth?
a. growth that occurs at a constant rate
b. growth that is logarithmic in nature
c. growth that occurs as a constant percentage of the existing amount
d. growth that doubles the existing number
3. What is uniformitarianism?
a. a uniform method by which science is conducted
b. a concept that states that present processes operated in the past, at similar rates
c. a concept stating that environmental conditions in the past were similar to those of today
d. a method by which the uniformity of population growth is assessed
4. How are the impacts of natural hazards linked to population growth?
a. population growth concentrates people and resources, such that the impacts of an individual natural
hazard can be greater
b. population growth changes the rates of geologic processes, in turn changing the frequency of hazardous
events
c. population growth weakens societal defenses against natural hazards
d. natural hazards strongly influence population growth
5. What is sustainability?
a. development that can be sustained for at least ten years
b. the ability of a population to sustain its growth
c. the ability of a population to sustain its economy
d. development that ensures that future generations will have equal access to the resources that our
planet offers
6. What does the concept of environmental unity state?
a. one action leads to subsequent actions in linked systems
b. all humans live on Gaia, and therefore we are subject to the same environment
c. all people on Earth agree on the nature of and solutions to environmental problems
d. all systems are related to one another
7. What is a theory?
a. a possible explanation for a set of observations
b. a hypothesis that has withstood extensive testing
c. a set of ideas that unifies a field of inquiry
d. an idea that is based only on logical thought
8. How does an open system contrast with a closed system?
a. an open system is open to scientific scrutiny, while a closed system is not
b. an open system is able to convert energy from one form to another, while a closed system is not able to do so
c. an open system is prone to collapse, while a closed system is typically more sustainable in the long term
d. an open system exchanges energy and/or materials with its surroundings, while a closed system does
not
9. What is average residence time?
a. the average time required for the total stock of a material to be cycled through a system
b. the average time that a human population can stay in an area before environmental conditions force them to
move
c. the average time required for an open system to convert to a closed system
d. the average time for a system to run out of energy
10. What has caused the Aral Sea to shrink dramatically over the past 40 years?
a. global climate change
b. water diversions in streams feeding the sea
c. excessive growth of shoreline plants due to excessive agricultural fertilizer runoff
d. extremely high evaporation rates
11. What is Earth systems science?
a. the study of the entire planet as a system of interrelated components
b. the study of the atmosphere
c. the study of population growth on Earth
d. the study of physical systems on the Earth’s surface
12. What is the Gaia hypothesis?
a. a hypothesis that states the Earth is alive
b. the concept of environmental unity
c. the hypothesis lying at the root of uniformitarianism
d. a set of hypotheses that likens the Earth to a superorganism with interrelated, mutually adjusting
systems
True/False
1. An open system exchanges energy and materials with its surroundings.
a. True
b. False
2. The scientific method begins with the development of a theory, which is then tested.
a. True
b. False
3. Because human population is becoming quite large, the doubling time for population has decreased.
a. True
b. False
4. Earth systems science depends on the validity of the Gaia hypothesis.
a. True
b. False
5. The concept of environmental unity states that one action causes subsequent actions in linked systems.
a. True
b. False
6. A closed system is not amenable to scientific scrutiny.
a. True
b. False
7. Ducktown, Tennessee suffered extreme environmental modification due to a large earthquake in 1811.
a. True
b. False
8. The principle of uniformitarianism can be extended to prediction of future natural hazards.
a. True
b. False
9. The health of the Aral Sea has become compromised by extensive aquatic pollution
a. True
b. False
10. The concept of a land ethic maintains that we are responsible to the entire environment, not just to humans.
a. True
b. False
Fill-in-the-Blank
1. The society of __________ Island was destroyed by environmental degradation. Answer: Easter
2. The law of ______________________ states that rocks with similar fossils are most likely of a similar geologic age.
Answer: faunal succession
3. ____________ growth implies that a constant percentage of humans are added each year. Answer: Exponential
4. The maximum number of people Earth can hold without causing prohibitive environmental degradation is
called _____________________. Answer: carrying capacity
5. Large-scale _____________ of Earth materials will be required to meet future resource demands. Answer:
recycling
6. A(n) _________ system is one that exchanges energy and/or materials with its surroundings. Answer: open
7. _________________ analysis evaluates change in open systems by examining the relative rates at which
materials enter and leave a system. Answer: Input-output analysis
8. __________________ , a principle proposed by James Hutton in 1785, is often summarized in the phrase,
“the present is the key to the past.” Answer: Uniformitarianism
9. The principle of _____________________ states that one action leads to subsequent actions in linked systems.
Answer: environmental unity.
10. Humans evolved during the _______________ Epoch of geologic time. Answer: Pleistocene
NOTE: Answers to the following are given at the end of this document
____
1. Minerals utilized by humans as a source of metal are termed ____________.
a. metallic minerals
b. ore minerals
____
2. The vast majority of minerals _____________ .
a. are quite common
b. are rare
c. form under special conditions
c. source minerals
d. Both a and b are correct.
e. Both b and c are correct.
____
3. Which of the following is NOT a mineral?
a. quartz
b. diamond
c. petroleum
d. gold
____
4. Minerals are all naturally occurring solid substances with a definable chemical composition. They must also
possess ____________.
a. an ability to be synthesized in the laboratory as well as being found in nature
b. metallic elements, such as iron, calcium, or magnesium
c. metallic luster
d. a fixed crystalline structure (spatial arrangement of atoms and ions)
____
5. Two different minerals may have the same chemical formula.
a. true
b. false
____
6. Which common mineral is found in most kitchens?
a. flour
c. halite
b. sugar
d. mustard
____
7. Minerals play an important role in ________________ .
a. our health
c. the processing of many products
b. our energy use
d. All of the above are correct.
____
8. Which of the following is NOT a mineral?
a. petroleum (oil), which is a liquid
b. cubic zirconia, which is a synthetic diamond substitute that is not found in nature
c. ice, which is water in the solid state
d. Neither a nor b is a mineral; however, c is a mineral.
____
9. In order for glass to be a mineral, which of its properties would need to change?
a. It would need to be crystalline.
b. It would need to have an ordered arrangement of atoms.
c. It would need to be inorganic
d. Both a and b are correct.
e. Both a and c are correct.
____ 10. The internal ordering of mineral crystals is detected using ____________.
a. magnetic resonance imaging
b. X-ray diffraction
c. a scanning electron microscope (SEM)
d. cathodized axial tomography
____ 11. All minerals are held together by ionic bonds.
a. true
b. false
____ 12. The New Age practice of surrounding one’s self with crystals has a strong positive effect on ____________.
a. mental health
b. the immune system’s response to illness
c. the prospects for world peace
d. the bank accounts of rock shop owners
____ 13. A single mineral may take on multiple crystalline lattice structures.
a. true
b. false
____ 14. Minerals in geodes (see below) form spectacular euhedral crystals because ____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
all of the elements incorporated in the crystals are in plentiful supply
the crystals have abundant room to grow in their hollow surroundings
minerals within geodes are always framework silicates
minerals within geodes always contain iron
____ 15. Diamond and graphite are both polymorphs of pure silicon.
a. true
b. false
____ 16. Natural glass is NOT considered a mineral because it ____________.
a. is not produced by geologic processes
b. is organic
c. does not have an organized crystalline structure
d. can be made synthetically as well as being a naturally occurring substance
____ 17. Five trillion atoms can fit into the head of a pin. Which of the following is in the correct order of smallest to
largest?
a. atom, nucleus, proton, electron
b. electron, proton, nucleus, atom
____ 18. How is chloride different from chlorine?
a. Chloride is chlorine’s anion.
b. Chloride has more electrons than chlorine.
c. Chloride has fewer protons than chlorine.
c. proton, electron, nucleus, atom
d. atom, electron, nucleus, proton
d. Both a and b are correct.
e. Both a and c are correct.
____ 19. Two types of bonds that depend upon polarity are ____________ and ____________.
a. hydrogen bonds; van der Waals bonds
b. ionic bonds; covalent bonds
c. hydrogen bonds; metallic bonds
d. ionic bonds; van der Waals bonds
____ 20. All minerals are chemical compounds (composed of more than one element).
a. true
b. false
____ 21. In nature most examples of minerals do NOT grow as large, well-formed, euhedral crystals.
a. true
b. false
____ 22. Minerals can be destroyed by ___________ .
a. melting
b. chemical reactions
c. dissolving
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 23. Which of the following is NOT a way crystals can form?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
solidification of a melt
precipitation from solution
solid-state diffusion
biomineralization
All of the above are ways crystals can form.
____ 24. If you were to drop a piece of calcite on the ground and a perfect cube broke off, this would be displaying calcite
breaking ______________.
a. along already formed cracks
c. in a fracture pattern
b. coincidentally as a perfect cube
d. along weak bonds
____ 25. In order for diamond to become graphite, what would need to occur?
a. The carbon atoms would need to be bonded in sheets.
b. The carbon atoms would need to be bonded in tetrahedra.
c. The bonds would need to weaken.
d. Both a and c are correct.
e. Both b and c are correct.
____ 26. The ____________ of new solid grains called _____________ results from oversaturated solutions.
a. precipitate; precipitation
b. precipitation; precipitate
____ 27. The shape of a crystal is most affected by all of the following except?
a. geometry of their internal structure
b. the angles between crystal faces
c. chemical composition of its surroundings
d. relative dimensions of the crystal
____ 28. The most useful diagnostic property of minerals is their color in a hand sample.
a. true
b. false
____ 29. The color of a mineral in powdered form is termed ____________.
a. color
c. luster
b. specific gravity
d. streak
____ 30. The shininess of a mineral is a helpful diagnostic property termed ____________.
a. color
b. specific gravity
c. luster
d. streak
____ 31. With regard to minerals, hardness refers to ____________.
a. the ability to resist breaking when being struck with a hammer
b. the ability to resist being scratched by other substances
c. the ability to resist chemical reactions with other substances
d. an absence of cleavage
____ 32. Topaz, with Mohs hardness of 8, is twice as hard as fluorite, with Mohs hardness of 4.
a. true
b. false
____ 33. The most recently formed portion of any crystal is always found ____________.
a. deep within the interior
b. on the outer edges
____ 34. Cleavage in minerals refers to ____________.
a. a tendency to break in an irregular pattern
b. a tendency to break along planes of weakness
c. the sharpness of edges between crystal faces
d. the development of distinct crystal faces
____ 35. Minerals that do not possess cleavage are said to possess ____________.
a. invulnerability
b. fracture
c. solidity
d. massiveness
____ 36. The single property that can be used to identify any mineral is ____________.
a. color
b. luster
c. cleavage
d. None of the above are correct; multiple properties must be used to diagnose a mineral.
____ 37. Trace amounts of impurity in a mineral can commonly produce significant differences in ____________ among
individual crystals of this mineral.
a. color
c. luster
b. specific gravity
d. streak
____ 38. For the majority of minerals, the streak color obtained when the mineral is scratched against a porcelain plate is
____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
likely to be diagnostic only if the mineral is hard enough to scratch porcelain
more variable than the color in a hand sample among crystals
less variable than the color in a hand sample among crystals
always dark brown or black
____ 39. Which of the following minerals is hardest?
a. quartz
c. talc
b. calcite
____ 40. Which of the following minerals is softest?
a. quartz
b. calcite
d. fluorite
c. talc
d. fluorite
____ 41. ____________ is a mineral property defined by the density of the mineral sample divided by the density of
water (1g/cm3).
a. Color
c. Luster
b. Specific gravity
d. Streak
____ 42. Ore minerals, such as galena, tend to be distinct in their very ____________.
a. dark coloration
c. great specific gravity
b. diamond-like crystal habit
d. vitreous luster
____ 43. When in contact with hydrochloric acid, which mineral gives off bubbles of carbon dioxide gas?
a. quartz
b. halite
c. calcite
d. fluorite
____ 44. Synthetically made glass and natural quartz crystals both exhibit a fracture pattern termed ____________.
a. glassy
c. serpentine
b. conchoidal
d. obtuse
____ 45. If humans were able to see a wider range of wavelengths, which physical property/properties of minerals would
be affected?
a. color
b. streak
c. luster
d. Both a and b are correct.
e. Both a and c are correct.
____ 46. The most abundant minerals belong to a chemical group termed the ____________.
a. silicates
c. halides
b. carbonates
d. oxides
____ 47. Most commercially exploited metals are extracted from the ground as native elements.
a. true
b. false
____ 48. The silicate tetrahedron that forms the backbone of all the silicate minerals is composed of silicon and what
other element?
a. magnesium
b. oxygen
c. iron
d. carbon
____ 49. Minerals are classified into groups known as mineral classes primarily on a basis of ____________.
a. chemistry, specifically the cations within the chemical formula
b. chemistry, specifically the anions within the chemical formula
c. hardness; hard, soft, and medium are the three primary classes
d. number of cleavage directions present
____ 50. In which type of silicate are the greatest proportion of oxygen atoms shared by pairs of adjacent tetrahedra?
a. chain silicates
b. framework silicates
c. sheet silicates
d. Sharing of oxygen atoms does not occur in silicates.
____ 51. In silicate minerals, tetrahedra may be linked to form ____________.
a. long one-dimensional chains
b. extensive two-dimensional sheets
c. massive three-dimensional frameworks
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 52. Silicates form their own mineral class and there are many examples of silicate minerals, most of which look
dissimilar to each other. Which of the following does not cause these dissimilarities?
a. the number of oxygen atoms in their internal structure
b. the ratio of silicon and oxygen atoms in their internal structure
c. the way the silica tetrahedra are arranged in their internal structure
d. the environment in which they form
____ 53. Which common gemstone results from biomineralization?
a. diamonds
c. pearls
b. garnets
d. sapphires
____ 54. Gemstones are commonly found in pegmatites, which are igneous rocks that are ____________.
a. exceptionally mafic
c. exceptionally coarse grained
b. extrusive, forming from lava
d. exceptionally fine grained
____ 55. Diamonds are usually found in pipes 50 to 200 m across made of _____________.
____ 121. Geologists who specifically study earthquakes are called ____________.
a. seismologists
c. vulcanologists
b. paleontologists
d. speleologists
____ 122. Earthquakes are a result of ____________.
a. a sudden change in atmospheric pressure
b. mantle upwelling
c. erosion
d. lithosphere-plate movement
____ 123. Faults that have moved recently or are likely to move in the future are referred to as ____________.
a. passive
c. normal
b. active
d. reverse
____ 124. A primary force opposing motion on all faults is ____________.
a. magnetic attraction among iron-rich minerals
b. gravity
c. friction
d. van der Waals force
____ 125. Movement on a fault may occur without generating earthquakes.
a. true
b. false
____ 126. Faulting and earthquakes are examples of ____________.
a. brittle behavior
b. ductile behavior
____ 127. A surface along which rock on opposed sides is offset by earthquake-induced slip is called a ____________.
a. joint
c. fold
b. fault
d. wall
____ 128. The intersection between a fault plane and the ground surface is called the ____________.
a. dip line
c. fault trace
b. plunge
d. seismic interface
____ 129. If, during an earthquake, a hanging wall slides upward relative to a footwall, the fault is termed ____________
if the fault is steep (closer to vertical than horizontal).
a. normal
b. reverse
c. strike slip
d. thrust
____ 130. If a fault is nearly vertical in orientation and the two walls of rock on opposite sides slide past one another
horizontally, the fault is termed ____________.
a. normal
b. reverse
c. strike slip
d. thrust
____ 131. If, during an earthquake, a hanging wall slides upward relative to a footwall, the fault is termed ____________
if the fault is shallow (much closer to horizontal than vertical).
a. normal
b. reverse
c. strike slip
d. thrust
____ 132. Of the following, which causes the most earthquakes?
a. the sudden formation of a new fault
c. the explosion of a volcano
b. a sudden slip on an existing fault
d. a giant landslide
____ 133. Aftershocks following a major earthquake ____________.
a. may continue for days after the initial earthquake
b. are mostly much smaller than the original earthquake
c. may occur on the same fault as the original earthquake, or a different fault
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 134. Periods of intermittent sliding on a fault as a result of the release of stress during episodes of displacement,
followed by stress buildup to the point that the fault is reactivated, is termed ____________.
a. chaotic faulting
c. stick-slip behavior
b. thrust faulting
d. reverse faulting
____ 135. The stress that builds on a preexisting fault that has previously ruptured _____________.
a. is great enough to cause new fractures
b. must overcome the force of friction to cause an earthquake
c. is analogous to a broken stick
d. is nonexistent
____ 136. A fault cannot slip forever because __________ .
a. it exhibits no elastic behavior
b. once the elastic bending that has built up is released, the blocks no longer move
c. the vibration caused by the slipping eventually ceases
d. friction eventually slows and stops the movement
____ 137. The quantity of offset that occurs along a fault is termed ____________.
a. fault gouge
c. displacement
b. the fault gauge
d. accumulation
____ 138. At any point along the fault plane surface of an oblique (nonvertical) fault, the ____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
hanging wall lies vertically above the footwall
footwall lies vertically above the hanging wall
hanging wall lies to the left of the footwall
footwall lies to the left of the hanging wall
____ 139. If, during an earthquake, a footwall slides upward relative to a hanging wall, the fault is termed ____________.
a. normal
b. reverse
c. strike slip
d. thrust
____ 140. All discovered faults are likely to experience earthquakes in the next few hundred years.
a. true
b. false
____ 141. Which type of fault does NOT, by definition, have a fault trace?
a. normal fault
b. reverse fault
c. blind fault
d. None of the above are correct; all faults have recognizable traces.
____ 142. In order for an earthquake to occur where you live, which of the following must be true?
a. You live in a seismic belt.
b. Energy must be released in the Earth’s crust.
c. You live on the Pacific Ocean.
d. Slip must occur along a fault.
____ 143. Body waves include ____________.
a. both S- and P-waves
b. both L- and R-waves
c. both surface and interior waves
d. P-waves only
____ 144. A coiled spring would be useful in illustrating a ____________ wave.
a. surface
b. body
c. shear
d. compressional
____ 145. Which type of seismic wave has the highest velocity?
a. L-wave
c. R-wave
b. P-wave
d. S-wave
____ 146. Earthquake waves that pass through the interior of Earth are termed ____________.
a. interior waves
c. surface waves
b. R-waves
d. body waves
____ 147. Surface waves ____________.
a. travel more rapidly than body waves
b. produce most of the damage to buildings during earthquakes
c. are the first waves initially produced in an earthquake
d. are the first waves to arrive at a seismograph station after an earthquake
____ 148. Generally, which type of earthquake waves travel fastest?
a. interior waves
c. surface waves
b. R-waves
d. body waves
____ 149. As a seismologist examining a seismogram, you would know that the third set of waves displayed
____________.
a. would cause the most damage
b. are S-waves
c. are P-waves
d. are an indication that the major earthquake is over and that the aftershocks have begun
____ 150. Seismometers, being able to detect ground movements of a millionth of a millimeter, are useful to governments
worldwide for detecting not only earthquakes, but _______________.
a. landslides
c. avalanches
b. nuclear bomb tests
d. bombing raids
____ 151. All else being equal, an earthquake that strikes in the eastern United States would produce shaking that would
be felt ____________ than one that occurred in the western United States.
a. over a greater distance
c. over the same distance
b. over a lesser distance
____ 152. This fundamental principle of physics is the basis behind the effectiveness of a seismometer.
a. The change of momentum of a body is proportional to the impulse impressed on the body,
and happens along the straight line on which that impulse is impressed.
b. The mutual forces of action and reaction between two bodies are equal, opposite, and
collinear.
c. Every body persists in its state of being at rest or of moving uniformly straight forward,
except insofar as it is compelled to change its state by force impressed.
d. To every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction.
____ 153. The key to finding the location of an earthquake’s epicenter is measuring the ____________.
a. difference between the time that the P-wave arrives and the time that the S-wave arrives at
the seismometer station
b. total time it takes for the P-wave and then the S-wave to arrive at the seismometer station
c. difference between the time the S-wave has reached one seismometer station and the time
the S-wave has reached another station
d. difference between the time the P-wave has reached one seismometer station and the time
the P-wave has reached another station
____ 154. The point within Earth where an earthquake takes place is termed the ____________.
a. hypocenter (focus)
c. eye of the fault
b. epicenter
d. vertex
____ 155. The point on Earth’s surface directly above the point where an earthquake occurs is termed the ____________.
a. hypocenter (focus)
c. eye of the fault
b. epicenter
d. vertex
____ 156. How many seismic stations are necessary to find the epicenter of an earthquake?
a. one
c. three
b. two
d. four
____ 157. Which earthquake severity scale takes vibration caused only by the S-waves into account when estimating the
size of an earthquake?
a. Richter scale
b. Mercalli scale
c. seismic-moment magnitude scale
____ 158. Vertical motion seismographs record earthquakes through the production of a squiggly diagram called a
____________.
a. wave sheet
c. pictogram
b. seismogram
d. camera lucida
____ 159. Which earthquake intensity scale assesses the effects of an earthquake on humans and human-made structures?
a. Richter scale
c. seismic-moment magnitude scale
b. Mercalli scale
____ 160. Which earthquake severity scale takes into account the type of rock that has been fractured?
a. Richter scale
c. seismic-moment magnitude scale
b. Mercalli scale
____ 161. An earthquake occurs with an epicenter in the town of New Madrid, Missouri, in the interior of the North
American Plate. Where might the hypocenter of this earthquake plausibly be found?
a. in New Madrid (“hypocenter” and “epicenter” mean precisely the same thing)
b. 10 km south of New Madrid
c. 20 km beneath New Madrid
d. 200 km beneath New Madrid
____ 162. Which earthquake severity scale measures the amplitude of deflection of a seismograph pen, standardized to an
idealized distance of 100 km between epicenter and seismograph?
a. Richter scale
c. seismic-moment magnitude scale
b. Mercalli scale
____ 163. Which of the following scales was used to measure the intensity of the listed earthquakes?
a. Mercalli
b. Seismic-moment
c. Richter
d. None of the above are correct.
____ 164. Which earthquake severity scale varies from locality to locality for a single earthquake?
a. Richter scale
c. seismic-moment magnitude scale
b. Mercalli scale
____ 165. If you heard on the news today that an earthquake measured an 8.2 on the Richter scale, what other conclusions
could you make based on knowledge garnered from this chapter?
a. that this was the only type of earthquake magnitude scale used
b. that there will be “moderate to serious damage” based on a subjective assessment of damage
and effects
c. that, according to the Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale, maximum intensity will be at levels
IX to X
d. that the earthquake will be described as “great”
____ 166. According to the moment magnitude scale (Mw)—a magnitude 8 earthquake results in 1,000 times greater
amplitude than a magnitude ____________ earthquake.
a. 9
c. 7
b. 5
d. 4
____ 167. Earthquakes are likely to occur along ____________.
a. convergent-plate boundaries only
c. transform-plate boundaries only
b. divergent-plate boundaries only
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 168. A tsunami is ____________.
a. an earthquake-generated sea wave that can sometimes destroy coastal cities thousands of
kilometers from its source
b. a sloshing of water back and forth within a lake or bay
c. the amount of change in elevation of local sea level caused by a surging wave
d. the tendency of wet, clay-rich soils to behave like a liquid during an earthquake
____ 169. On December 26, 2004, a magnitude 9 earthquake generated a tsunami that devastated coastlines along the
____________.
a. Atlantic Ocean
c. Indian Ocean
b. Arctic Ocean
d. Pacific Ocean
____ 170. What geological setting(s) would you expect to produce seismic activity?
a. rift valley
c. collisional mountain belt
b. basin
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 171. Medium- and deep-focus earthquakes occur along ____________.
a. convergent-plate boundaries only
c. transform-plate boundaries only
b. divergent-plate boundaries only
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 172. Earthquakes that occur in a band called a ____________ can be used to track the motion of subducted oceanic
lithosphere.
a. Wegener belt
c. Wadati-Benioff zone
b. seismic gap
____ 173. Virtually all of the deaths attributed to major earthquakes have resulted from the collapse of buildings.
a. true
b. false
____ 174. Sandy substrate is susceptible to ____________ during an earthquake.
a. displacement
c. liquifaction
b. collapse
d. faulting
____ 175. Short-term predictions of earthquake behavior ____________.
a. have saved millions of lives in the past decade alone
b. have been largely unreliable
c. are primarily based on the behavior patterns of farm animals
d. are correct approximately 50% of the time
____ 176. Long-term prediction of earthquake behavior ____________.
a. is based on past earthquake activity
b. works on the principle that zones of past seismicity will be active in the future
c. includes the notion of seismic gaps—places where an earthquake is “overdue”
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 177. Why do some earthquakes last longer than others?
a. The substrate in which it occurs is stronger.
b. The distance from the epicenter is greater.
c. The frequency of the waves is greater.
d. The distance from the focus is greater.
____ 178. Which of these areas of the United States would you expect to have the highest occurrence of seismic activity?
a. Southeast
b. West
c. Northeast
d. Central
____ 179. How can damage and injury be minimized in areas prone to seismic activity?
a. earthquake zoning
c. warning systems
b. engineering controls
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 180. Seismic retrofitting is the process of __________.
a. predicting earthquakes
b. strengthening existing buildings and structures
c. mapping areas prone to earthquakes
d. releasing energy
Practice_1st_exam_Geol_2001
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TOP:
14. ANS:
TOP:
15. ANS:
TOP:
16. ANS:
TOP:
17. ANS:
TOP:
18. ANS:
TOP:
19. ANS:
TOP:
20. ANS:
TOP:
21. ANS:
TOP:
B
I
E
I
C
II
D
II
A
II
C
II
D
II
D
II
D
II
B
III.B
B
III.B.i.c
D
III.A
B
III.B
B
III.B
B
III.B
C
III.B
B
III.B.i.a
D
III.B.i.b
A
III.B.i.c
B
III.B.i.d
A
III.C
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Factual
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.1
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.1
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.2
DIF: Difficult
REF: 3.2
DIF: Difficult
REF: 3.2
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
22. ANS:
TOP:
23. ANS:
TOP:
24. ANS:
TOP:
25. ANS:
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41. ANS:
TOP:
42. ANS:
TOP:
43. ANS:
TOP:
44. ANS:
TOP:
45. ANS:
TOP:
46. ANS:
D
III.C
E
III.C
C
IV.H
D
III.B
B
III.B.i.e
C
III.C
B
IV.A
D
IV.B
C
IV.C
B
IV.D
B
IV.D
B
IV.F
B
IV.H
B
IV.H
D
IV
A
IV.A
C
IV.B
A
IV.D
C
IV.D
B
IV.E
C
IV.E
C
IV.G
B
IV.H
D
IV
A
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.3
DIF: Difficult
REF: 3.3
DIF: Difficult
REF: 3.3
DIF: Difficult
REF: 3.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.4
DIF: Difficult
REF: 3.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 3.5
TOP:
47. ANS:
TOP:
48. ANS:
TOP:
49. ANS:
TOP:
50. ANS:
TOP:
51. ANS:
TOP:
52. ANS:
TOP:
53. ANS:
TOP:
54. ANS:
TOP:
55. ANS:
TOP:
V.B
B
V.A
B
V.B
B
V
B
V.B
D
V.B.i
D
V.B.i
C
VI
C
VI
A
VI.A
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Factual
121. ANS:
TOP:
122. ANS:
TOP:
123. ANS:
TOP:
124. ANS:
TOP:
125. ANS:
TOP:
126. ANS:
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127. ANS:
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128. ANS:
TOP:
129. ANS:
TOP:
130. ANS:
TOP:
131. ANS:
TOP:
132. ANS:
TOP:
133. ANS:
TOP:
134. ANS:
A
I
D
I
B
II
C
II
A
II
A
II.B
B
II
C
II
B
II
C
II
D
II
B
II
D
II
C
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.5
DIF: Difficult
REF: 3.5
DIF: Difficult
REF: 3.5
DIF: Difficult
REF: 3.5
DIF: Difficult
REF: 3.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.6
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.6
DIF: Medium
REF: 3.6
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.1
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.1
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.2
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.2
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.2
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
TOP:
135. ANS:
TOP:
136. ANS:
TOP:
137. ANS:
TOP:
138. ANS:
TOP:
139. ANS:
TOP:
140. ANS:
TOP:
141. ANS:
TOP:
142. ANS:
TOP:
143. ANS:
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144. ANS:
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145. ANS:
TOP:
146. ANS:
TOP:
147. ANS:
TOP:
148. ANS:
TOP:
149. ANS:
TOP:
150. ANS:
TOP:
151. ANS:
TOP:
152. ANS:
TOP:
153. ANS:
TOP:
154. ANS:
TOP:
155. ANS:
TOP:
156. ANS:
TOP:
157. ANS:
TOP:
158. ANS:
TOP:
II.B
B
II.B
D
II.B
C
II.C
A
II
A
II
B
II
C
II.A
B
II | VI
A
III
D
III
B
III
D
III
B
III
D
III
A
IV.A
B
IV.A
A
III
C
IV.A
A
IV.B
A
IV.B
B
IV.B
C
IV.B
A
V
B
V
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Factual
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2
DIF: Difficult
REF: 8.2
DIF: Difficult
REF: 8.2
DIF: Difficult
REF: 8.2
DIF: Difficult
REF: 8.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.2 | 8.6
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.4
DIF: Difficult
REF: 8.4
DIF: Difficult
REF: 8.4
DIF: Difficult
REF: 8.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.5
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.5
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.5
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.5
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.5
159. ANS:
TOP:
160. ANS:
TOP:
161. ANS:
TOP:
162. ANS:
TOP:
163. ANS:
TOP:
164. ANS:
TOP:
165. ANS:
TOP:
166. ANS:
TOP:
167. ANS:
TOP:
168. ANS:
TOP:
169. ANS:
TOP:
170. ANS:
TOP:
171. ANS:
TOP:
172. ANS:
TOP:
173. ANS:
TOP:
174. ANS:
TOP:
175. ANS:
TOP:
176. ANS:
TOP:
177. ANS:
TOP:
178. ANS:
TOP:
179. ANS:
TOP:
180. ANS:
TOP:
B
V
C
V
C
IV
A
V
B
V
B
V
D
V
B
V
D
VI.A
A
VII.E
C
VII.E
D
VI
A
VI.A
C
VI.A.ii
B
VII
C
VII.C
B
VIII.A
D
VIII.B
C
VIII.A
B
VIII
D
VIII | IX
B
IX
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Applied
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.5
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.5
DIF: Difficult
REF: 8.5
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.6
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.6
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.6
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.6
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.6
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.6
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.7
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.7
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.8
DIF: Easy
REF: 8.9
DIF: Medium
REF: 8.9