Mathematical Olympiad description
The Mathematical Olympiad is a six-problem, 100-points competition for all last year high school
students who enjoy mathematics and plan to study in KIMEP University. Its aim is to select the
most deserving winners who will be eligible for one of some KIMEP’s g grants according to their
merits. Competitors are judged on their ability in solving mathematics problems that are drawn from
high school mathematics curricula. These problems are nonstandard, and comparable to “classical”
Olympiad type. Competitors are expected to demonstrate their logical and analytical thinking.
The competition will last 3 hours. Competitors are allowed simple calculators with four basic
arithmetic operations. Competitors may only ask questions pertaining to linguistic difficulties.
However, uses of mobile phones or any electronic device along with non- official paper, cheat-sheets
are strictly prohibited. Note that decisions of the judges are finals. There is no recourse or appeal of
their decisions.
Mathematical Olympiad content:
Mathematics Olympiad competitors will be given six Mathematics problems to solve. They consist of:
I)
Two easy problems, based on high school program (both problems are worth 20
points). The first two problems are chosen from standard school program.
II)
Two medium level problems requiring logical thinking (both problems are worth 30
points). These problems are derived from the series of GMAT tests.
III)
Two advanced problems of Olympiad level (both problems are worth 50 points).
They are nonstandard.
Totally 6 problems of different level will be offered for solution.
Mathematical Olympiad preparation:
To be prepared for Olympiad in Mathematics competitor should has a strong knowledge in
advanced school program and should be well grounded in training for Olympiad level
problems.
I) For the first two of easy problems competitor should demonstrate his/her ability to solve
standard school problems. These problems are chosen from standard school program and
may be selected from such famous textbooks e.g. :
1) Под редакцией Сканави М.И. Сборник задач для поступающих в вузы.
http://www.dolit.net/author/4441/skanavi_mi
2)
Сканави-М-И-Решебник-Группа-А-к-Сборнику-задач-для-поступающих-ввузы ,
http://www.scribd.com/doc/24773864/Сканави-М-И-Решебник-Группа-А-к-Сборникузадач-для-поступающих-в-вузы.
3) Г.В. Дорофеев: ГДЗ по Математике за 11 класс: Сборник заданий для
проведения письменного экзамена по математике, алгебре и началам анализа за
курс средней школы.
http://www.otbet.ru/gdz/class-11/algebra/dorofeev-muravin/
4) B. С. Кущенко , Сборник конкурсных задач по математике с решениями
and others resources.
II)
The second two problems will be of medium level requiring logical thinking. These
problems are derived from the series of GMAT tests.
Detailed samples can be taking from the Internet sites devoted to GMAST tests and in
Attachment 1. (See below).
III)
The last two problems are advanced and nonstandard level. For their successful
solution competitor should show his/her creative and original approach. These
problems are derived from the series of International Olympiad level.
1) (http://www.imo-official.org/problems.aspx)
2) Петраков И.С. Математичксие олимпиады школьников.
3) Бабинская И.Л. Задачи математческих олимпиад and others resources.
Detailed sample can be taking from sites of Math Olympiads and in
Attachment 2. ( See below).
Note, that the problems given as a sample provide an approximate illustration of type and
level of difficulty.
Mathematical Olympiad presentation of solution
It is expected that solution for each problem is performed logically and sequentially on a sheet of
paper by written. Competitors should provide full detailed solutions for each problem. The answers
for each problem should be completed. The problems can be ordered at random according
Competitor’s own preferences.
Timing: it is recommended to spend 30 minutes for the first two problems;
to spend 60 minutes for the second two problems;
to spend 90 minutes for the third two problems.
Totally 3 hours.
Competitors have to have pen with blue or black ink, pencil and erasing rubber with him/her. It will
be allowed to use simple calculators with four basic arithmetic operations.
Mathematical Olympiad Evaluation criteria
The Mathematics Olympiad Selection Committee will make decision regarding each competitor’s
grades in mathematics. Competitors in the field of mathematics are expected to provide full
detailed solutions and answers to the problems they were asked in their paper. Original and creative
solutions will be encouraged and appreciated.
Attachment 1.
EXAMPLES (taking from KIMEP Site: www. kimep.kz )
Test 1
Part 1. Problem Solving
1. If x² - y² = 55, and x - y = 11, then y =
(A) 8
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) -8
(E) -3
2.
In a sports club with 30 members, 17 play badminton and 19 play tennis and 2 do not play either. How many
members play both badminton and tennis?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
(E) 11
Rectangle ABCD has a perimeter of 26. The half circle with diameter AD has an area of 8π. What is the
perimeter of the part of the figure that is not shaded?
(A) 26 + 4π
(B) 18 + 8π
(C) 18 + 4π
(D) 14 + 4π
(E) 14 + 2π
3.
4.
6 people meet for a business lunch. Each person shakes hands once with each other person present. How
many handshakes take place?
(A) 30
(B) 21
(C) 18
(D) 15
(E) 10
5. (3 x 104) + (2 x 10²) + (4 x 10) =
(A) 302400
(B) 32400
(C) 30240
(D) 3240
(E) 324
6. Andy solves problems 74 to 125 inclusive in a Math exercise. How many problems does he solve?
(A) 53
(B) 52
(C) 51
(D) 50
(E) 49
7. If n > 0 , which of the following must be true?
I n² > 1
II n - n² < 0
III 2n - 1 > 0
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) none
8. AB and DE are parallel. Angle BAC = 30 , angle CDE = 50. What is the measure of angle ACD?
(A) 100
(B) 90
(C) 80
(D) 70
(E) cannot be
determined
9.
The total weight of a tin and the cookies it contains is 2 pounds. After ¾ of the cookies are eaten, the tin and
the remaining cookies weigh 0.8 pounds. What is the weight of the empty tin in pounds?
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.5
(E) 0.6
10. If y ¤ x = y2x for all positive integers, then (3 ¤ 4) ¤ 2 =
(A) 38
(B) 312
(C) 316
(D) 324
(E) 332
11. 3x + y = 19 , and x + 3y = 1.
Find the value of 2x + 2y
(A) 20
(B) 18
(E) 5
(C) 11
(D) 10
12. The price of a cycle is reduced by 25 per cent. The new price is reduced by a further 20 per cent. The two
reductions together are equal to a single reduction of
(A) 45%
(B) 40%
(C) 35%
(D) 32.5%
(E) 30%
13. In a class of 78 students 41 are taking French, 22 are taking German and 9 students are taking both French
and German. How many students are not enrolled in either course?
(A) 6
(B) 15
(C) 24
(D) 33
(E) 54
14. 12 litres of water a poured into an aquarium of dimensions 50cm length , 30cm breadth, and 40 cm height.
How high (in cm) will the water rise?
(1 litre = 1000cm³)
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 20
(E) 40
15. A certain animal in the zoo has consumed 39 pounds of food in six days. If it continues to eat at the same
rate, in how many more days will its total consumption be 91 pounds?
(A) 12
(B) 11
(C) 10
(D) 9
(E) 8
16. Amy has to visit towns B and C in any order. The roads connecting these towns with her home are shown on
the diagram. How many different routes can she take starting from A and returning to A, going through both B
and C and not travelling any road twice on the same trip?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 2
17. ABCD is a parallelogram. BD = 2. The angles of triangle BCD are all equal. What is the perimeter of the
parallelogram?
(A) 12
(B) 9√3
(C) 9
(D) 8
(E) 3√3
18. If the product of 6 integers is negative, at most how many of the integers can be negative?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
19. In the figure above the square has two sides which are tangent to the circle. If the area of the circle is 4a²π,
what is the area of the square?
(A) 2a²
(B) 4a
(C) 4a²
(D) 16a²
(E) 64a²
20. Sheila works 8 hours per day on Monday, Wednesday and Friday, and 6 hours per day on Tuesday and
Thursday. She does not work on Saturday and Sunday. She earns $324 per week. How much does she earn
in dollars per hour?
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 8
(E) 7
Part 2. Data Sufficiency
Decision Rules
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) ALONE is not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) ALONE is not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
1.
Kelly's raise increased his salary by what percent?
(1) Kelly's raise was $1,200.
(2) Kelly's raise increased his taxes to $1,700.
2.
Mouse population X doubles every week. How many weeks from now will population X
1,000,000 ?
(1) The mouse population is now 65,536.
(2) Fifteen weeks ago the mouse population was 2.
3.
If no student took test T more than once, how many students took test T?
(1) The average (arithmetic mean) of the students' scores on test T was 72.
(2) The sum of he students' scores on test T was 2,232.
4.
If x + 2y = 6, what is the value of x?
(1) 2x + y = 9
(2) 3x + 2y = 14
5.
Last year 4/5 of the applicants for a job on a police force passed the physical examination. If 3/4 of the
applicants who passed the physical examination also passed the written examination, how many of the
applicants passed both examinations?
(1) The number of applicants who did not pass either examination was equal to the number who passed the
written examination only.
(2) There was a total of 100 applicants.
6.
Is the integer n even?
(1) n2 -1 is odd.
(2)
7.
n
is an integer.
If today is Carol's birthday, how old is Carol?
(1) 6 years ago she was half her present age.
(2) 3 years from now she will be 3 times as old as she was 7 years ago.
first exceed
8.
If x, y, and z are positive, what is the value of x ?
(1) x + y = z + y
(2) z – y = 4 – y
9.
If y > 0, is y greater than x?
(1) 3x = 2y
(2) x + y = 5
10. Did the population of Country S increase by less than 20 percent from 1965 to 1975?
(1) The population of Country S in 1965 was 180 million.
(2) The population of Country S in 1975 was 1.17 times what it was in 1965.
11. Four dollar amounts, w, x, y, and z, were invested in a business. Which amount was greatest'?
(1) y < z < x
(2) x was 25 percent of the total of the four investments.
12. If the measures of' the three interior angles of a triangle are y°, 15x°, and 18x°, what is the value of y ?
(1) x =5
(2) 15x + y = 90
13. What is the average (arithmetic mean) of x and y?
(1) x/2 + y/2 = 10
(2) x = 2y
14. How many bags of grass seed were used for rectangular lawn X?
(1) Lawn X has a perimeter of 720 feet.
(2) One bag of grass seed was used for each 5,000 square feet of lawn X
15. If n is a positive integer, is n divisible by at least six positive integers?
(1) n is the product of three different prime numbers.
(2) n = 30
16. If b is the product of three consecutive positive integers c, c + 1, and c + 2, is b a multiple of 24?
(1) b is a multiple of 3,
(2) c is odd.
17. If x and y are integers, is x + y divisible by 6?
(1) x is divisible by 6.
(2) y is divisible by 6.
18. In a given class, what is the average (arithmetic mean) height per pupil?
(1) The average (arithmetic mean) height of the girls in the class is 61 inches.
(2) The average (arithmetic mean) height of the boys in the class is 64 inches.
19. Are integers r and s consecutive ?
(1) r is odd and s is even.
(2) r - s = 1
20. A raincoat and an umbrella cost a total of $53.50. What is the cost of the raincoat?
(1) If the cost of the raincoat were to increase by 10 percent, the raincoat and the umbrella would cost a total
of $58.00.
(2) The cost of the raincoat is $2.50 more than 5 times the cost of the umbrella.
Part 3. Critical Reasoning
1. An eyeglass manufacturer tried to boost sales for the summer quarter by offering its distributors a special
discount if their orders for that quarter exceeded those for last year's summer quarter by at least 20 percent. Many
distributors qualified for this discount. Even with much merchandise discounted, sales increased enough to
produce a healthy gain in net profits. The manufacturer plans to repeat this success by offering the same sort of
discount for the fall quarter.
Which of the following, if true, most clearly points to a flaw in the manufacturer's plan to repeat the successful
performance of the summer quarter?
(A) In general, a distributor's orders for the summer quarter are no higher than those for the spring quarter.
(B) Along with offering special discounts to qualifying distributors, the manufacturer increased newspaper and
radio advertising in those distributors' sales areas.
(C) The distributors most likely to qualify for the manufacturer's special discount are those whose orders were
unusually low a year earlier.
(D) The distributors how qualified for the manufacturer's special discount were free to decide how much of that
discount to pass on to their own customers.
(E) The distributors' ordering more goods in the summer quarter left them overstocked for the fall quarter.
2. Journalist: In physics journals, the number of articles reporting the results of experiments involving particle
accelerators was lower last year than it had been in previous years. Several of the particle accelerators at major
research institutions were out of service the year before last for repairs, so it is likely that the low number of
articles was due to the decline in availability of particle accelerators.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the journalist's argument?
(A) Every article based on experiments with particle accelerators that was submitted for publication last year
actually was published.
(B) The average time scientists must wait for access to a particle accelerator has declined over the last several
years.
(C) The number of physics journals was the same last year as in previous years.
(D) Particle accelerators can be used for more than one group of experiments in any given year.
(E) Recent changes in the editorial policies of several physics journals have decreased the likelihood that articles
concerning particle-accelerator research will be accepted for publication.
3. The proposal to hire ten new police officers in Middletown is quite foolish. There is sufficient funding to pay the
salaries of the new officers, but not the salaries of additional court and prison employees to process the increased
caseload of arrests and convictions that new officers usually generate.
Which of the following, if true, will most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn above?
(A) Studies have shown that an increase in a city's police force does not necessarily reduce crime.
(B) When one major city increased its police force by 19 percent last year, there were 40 percent more arrests
and 13 percent more convictions.
(C) If funding for the new police officers' salaries is approved, support for other city services will have to be
reduced during the next fiscal year.
(D) In most United States cities, not all arrests result in convictions, and not all convictions result in prison terms.
(E) Middletown's ratio of police officers to citizens has reached a level at which an increase in the number of
officers will have a deterrent effect on crime.
4. A recent report determined that although only three percent of drivers on Maryland highways equipped their
vehicles with radar detectors, thirty-three percent of all vehicles ticketed for exceeding the speed limit were
equipped with them. Clearly, drivers who equip their vehicles with radar detectors are more likely to exceed the
speed limit regularly than are drivers who do not.
The conclusion drawn above depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Drivers who equip their vehicles with radar detectors are less likely to be ticketed for exceeding the speed limit
than are drivers who do not.
(B) Drivers who are ticketed for exceeding the speed limit are more likely to exceed the speed limit regularly than
are drivers who are not ticketed.
(C) The number of vehicles that were ticketed for exceeding the speed limit was greater than the number of
vehicles that were equipped with radar detectors.
(D) Many of the vehicles that were ticketed for exceeding the speed limit were ticketed more than once in the time
period covered by the report.
(E) Drivers on Maryland highways exceeded the speed limit more often than did drivers on other state highways
not covered in the report.
5. Researchers have found that when very overweight people, who tend to have relatively low metabolic rates,
lose weight primarily through dieting, their metabolisms generally remain unchanged. They will thus burn
significantly fewer calories at the new weight than do people whose weight is normally at that level. Such newly
thin persons will, therefore, ultimately regain weight until their body size again matches their metabolic rate.
The conclusion of the argument above depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Relatively few very overweight people who have dieted down to a new weight tend to continue to consume
substantially fewer calories than do people whose normal weight is at that level.
(B) The metabolisms of people who are usually not overweight are much more able to vary than the metabolisms
of people who have been very overweight.
(C) The amount of calories that a person usually burns in a day is determined more by the amount that is
consumed that day than by the current weight of the individual.
(D) Researchers have not yet determined whether the metabolic rates of formerly very overweight individuals can
be accelerated by means of chemical agents.
(E) Because of the constancy of their metabolic rates, people who are at their usual weight normally have as
much difficulty gaining weight as they do losing it.
6. In 1987 sinusitis was the most common chronic medical condition in the United States, followed by arthritis and
high blood pressure, in that order. The incidence rates for both arthritis and high blood pressure increase with
age, but the incidence rate for sinusitis is the same for people of all ages. The average age of the United States
population will increase between 1987 and 2000.
Which of the following conclusions can be most properly drawn about chronic medical conditions in the United
States from the information given above?
(A) Sinusitis will be more common than either arthritis or high blood pressure in 2000.
(B) Arthritis will be the most common chronic medical condition in 2000.
(C) The average age of people suffering from sinusitis will increase between 1987 and 2000.
(D) Fewer people will suffer from sinusitis in 2000 than suffered from it in 1987.
(E) A majority of the population will suffer from at least one of the medical conditions mentioned above by the year
2000.
7. Parasitic wasps lay their eggs directly into the eggs of various host insects in exactly the right numbers for any
suitable size of host egg. If they laid too many eggs in a host egg, the developing wasp larvae would compete
with each other to the death for nutrients and space. If too few eggs were laid, portions of the host egg would
decay, killing the wasp larvae.
Which of the following conclusions can properly be drawn from the information above?
(A) The size of the smallest host egg that a wasp could theoretically parasitize can be determined from the wasp's
egg-laying behavior.
(B) Host insects lack any effective defenses against the form of predation practiced by parasitic wasps.
(C) Parasitic wasps learn from experience how many eggs to lay into the eggs of different host species.
(D) Failure to lay enough eggs would lead to the death of the developing wasp larvae more quickly than would
laying too many eggs.
(E) Parasitic wasps use visual clues to calculate the size of a host egg.
8. Northern Air has dozens of flights daily into and out of Belleville Airport, which is highly congested. Northern Air
depends for its success on economy and quick turnaround and consequently is planning to replace its large
planes with Skybuses, whose novel aerodynamic design is extremely fuel efficient. The Skybus' fuel efficiency
results in both lower fuel costs and reduced time spent refueling.
Which of the following, if true, could present the most serious disadvantage for Northern Air in replacing their
large planes with Skybuses?
(A) The Skybus would enable Northern Air to schedule direct flights to destinations that currently require stops for
refueling.
(B) Aviation fuel is projected to decline in price over the next several years.
(C) The fuel efficiency of the Skybus would enable Northern Air to eliminate refueling at some of its destinations,
but several mechanics would lose their jobs.
(D) None of Northern Air's competitors that use Belleville Airport are considering buying Skybuses.
(E) The aerodynamic design of the Skybus causes turbulence behind it when taking off that forces other planes
on the runway to delay their takeoffs.
9. Products sold under a brand name used to command premium prices because, in general, they were superior
to nonbrand rival products. Technical expertise in product development has become so widespread, however,
that special quality advantages are very hard to obtain these days and even harder to maintain. As a
consequence, brand-name products generally neither offer higher quality nor sell at higher prices. Paradoxically,
brand names are a bigger marketing advantage than ever.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the paradox outlined above?
(A) Brand names are taken by consumers as a guarantee of getting a product as good as the best rival products.
(B) Consumers recognize that the quality of products sold under invariant brand names can drift over time.
(C) In many acquisitions of one corporation by another, the acquiring corporation is interested more in acquiring
the right to use certain brand names than in acquiring existing production facilities.
(D) In the days when special quality advantages were easier to obtain than they are now, it was also easier to get
new brand names established.
(E) The advertising of a company's brand-name products is at times transferred to a new advertising agency,
especially when sales are declining.
10. A museum has been offered an undocumented statue, supposedly Greek and from the sixth century B.C.
Possibly the statue is genuine but undocumented because it was recently unearthed or because it has been
privately owned. However, an ancient surface usually has uneven weathering, whereas the surface of this statue
has the uniform quality characteristically produced by a chemical bath used by forgers to imitate a weathered
surface. Therefore, the statue is probably a forgery.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
(A) Museums can accept a recently unearthed statue only with valid export documentation from its country of
origin.
(B) The subject's pose and other aspects of the subject's treatment exhibit all the most common features of Greek
statues of the sixth century B.C.
(C) The chemical bath that forgers use was at one time used by dealers and collectors to remove the splotchy
surface appearance of genuinely ancient sculptures.
(D) Museum officials believe that forgers have no technique that can convincingly simulate the patchy weathering
characteristic of the surfaces of ancient sculptures.
(E) An allegedly Roman sculpture with a uniform surface similar to that of the stature being offered to the museum
was recently shown to be a forgery.
Answers
Problem solving
1. E 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. E 8. C 9. C 10. E 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. E16. B17. D18. D19. D 20. C
Data sufficiency
1. E 2. D 3. C 4.D 5.B 6.A 7. D 8.C 9. C10. B11.C 12. D13. A14. E15.D 16.E 17.C 18. E19. B 20. D
Critical thinking
1.
E 2. E 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. C 7.C 8. E 9. A 10. C
Attachment 2
EXAMPLES (Taking from site of International Mathematical Olympiad) (http://www.imoofficial.org/problems.aspx)
Problem 1. Given triangle ABC the point J is the centre of the excircle opposite the vertex A.
This excircle is tangent to the side BC at M, and to the lines AB and AC at K and L, respectively.
The lines LM and BJ meet at F, and the lines KM and CJ meet at G. Let S be the point of
intersection of the lines AF and BC, and let T be the point of intersection of the lines AG and BC.
Prove that M is the midpoint of ST.
(The excircle of ABC opposite the vertex A is the circle that is tangent to the line segment BC,
to the ray AB beyond B, and to the ray AC beyond C.)
Problem 2. Let n _ 3 be an integer, and let a2, a3, . . . , an be positive real numbers such that
a2a3 · · · an = 1. Prove that
(1 + a2)2(1 + a3)3 · · · (1 + an)n > nn.
Problem 3. The liar’s guessing game is a game played between two players A and B. The rules
of the game depend on two positive integers k and n which are known to both players.
At the start of the game A chooses integers x and N with 1 _ x _ N. Player A keeps x secret,
and truthfully tells N to player B. Player B now tries to obtain information about x by asking player
A questions as follows: each question consists of B specifying an arbitrary set S of positive integers
(possibly one specified in some previous question), and asking A whether x belongs to S. Player
B may ask as many such questions as he wishes. After each question, player A must immediately
answer it with yes or no, but is allowed to lie as many times as she wants; the only restriction is
that, among any k + 1 consecutive answers, at least one answer must be truthful.
After B has asked as many questions as he wants, he must specify a set X of at most n positive
integers. If x belongs to X, then B wins; otherwise, he loses. Prove that:
1. If n _ 2k, then B can guarantee a win.
2. For all sufficiently large k, there exists an integer n _ 1.99k such that B cannot guarantee a
win.
Problem 4. Find all functions f : Z ! Z such that, for all integers a, b, c that satisfy a+b+c = 0,
the following equality holds:
f(a)2 + f(b)2 + f(c)2 = 2f(a)f(b) + 2f(b)f(c) + 2f(c)f(a).
(Here Z denotes the set of integers.)
Problem 5. Let ABC be a triangle with \BCA = 90_, and let D be the foot of the altitude from
C. Let X be a point in the interior of the segment CD. Let K be the point on the segment AX
such that BK = BC. Similarly, let L be the point on the segment BX such that AL = AC. Let M
be the point of intersection of AL and BK.
Show that MK = ML.