School of Anatomy, Physiology & Human Biology
SEMESTER 1, 2012 EXAMINATIONS
ANHB1101
Human Biology I
FAMILY NAME:____________________________
GIVEN NAMES: ______________________
STUDENT ID:
SIGNATURE: ________________________
This Paper Contains: 16 pages (including title page)
Section A pages 1 – 9
Section B pages 10 - 16
Time allowed: 2 hours 10 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Check that you have THREE items.
(a) This question paper - Section A questions.
(b) A short answer question paper - Section B questions & answers.
(c) A sheet for MCQ answers.
2. Write your personal details on ALL of the 3 items.
3. ALL the items listed above must be handed in at the end of the examination.
4. This exam is in two sections.
A. 40 Multiple choice questions (MCQ). Answer ALL questions.
B. 6 Short Answer questions. These are in a separate book. Answer ALL questions.
5. Carefully read the instructions at the beginning of each section.
6. This paper contributes 40% to your semester grade.
PLEASE NOTE
Examination candidates may only bring authorised materials into the examination room. If a supervisor
finds, during the examination, that you have unauthorised material, in whatever form, in the vicinity of
your desk or on your person, whether in the examination room or the toilets or en route to/from the
toilets, the matter will be reported to the head of school and disciplinary action will normally be taken
against you. This action may result in your being deprived of any credit for this examination or even,
in some cases, for the whole unit. This will apply regardless of whether the material has been used
at the time it is found.
Therefore, any candidate who has brought any unauthorised material whatsoever into the examination
room should declare it to the supervisor immediately. Candidates who are uncertain whether any material
is authorised should ask the supervisor for clarification.
Supervisors Only – Student left at:
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 2
Human Biology I
SECTION A
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
Only use a soft lead pencil to write on the answer sheet. Make corrections with an eraser. Do
not use white-out or other correcting fluids.
2.
Write your name and student number on the answer sheet.
3.
Blank out the appropriate digits in the student name and number columns.
4.
Answer ALL questions in this section.
5.
Make sure that you start at Question 1.
6.
This section contributes 40% to the total value of this exam.
40 Multiple Choice Questions
~50 minutes
1.
Which of the following planes can pass through both the nose and the ears?
A
B
C
D
E
2.
The lumbar vertebrae are WHAT to the thoracic vertebrae?
A
B
C
D
E
3.
Mid-sagittal
Coronal plane
Frontal plane
Parasagittal plane
Transverse plane
Inferior
Proximal
Superior
Cranial
Deep
Which one of the following is NOT in the correct anatomical position?
A
B
C
D
E
Face and eyes facing forward
Arms at sides
Standing erect
Palms facing posteriorly
Feet flat on the floor
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
4.
B
C
D
E
Regularly arranged actin and myosin filaments give smooth muscle its striated
appearance.
Skeletal muscle cells are able to divide following injury.
Cardiac muscle cells are multinucleate.
Connective tissue is a prominent feature of skeletal muscle.
A motor unit is a single muscle cell and all the nerves which innervate it.
Muscle cells contain numerous _____________ to serve their high demand for ATP.
A
B
C
D
E
9.
Cartilage in the epiphyseal line allows the bone to grow in length.
Osteons in compact bone are arranged along lines of stress.
Collagen fibers give the bone resistance to compressive forces.
Periosteum covers joint surfaces.
Osteocytes live in lacunae in the bony matrix.
Which of the following statements about muscle is CORRECT?
A
8.
Dense regular connective tissue
Bone
Loose connective tissue
Blood
Adipose tissue
Which statement about a long bone is CORRECT?
A
B
C
D
E
7.
Simple squamous epithelium is found lining the esophagus.
Simple columnar epithelium is found lining the stomach.
Simple cuboidal epithelium consists of multiple layers of cuboidal cells.
Stratified squamous epithelium is found lining the bladder.
Cilia are membrane specializations which increase surface area for absorption.
Which of the following connective tissues has more fibers than either ground substance or
cells?
A
B
C
D
E
6.
Human Biology I
Which of the following statements about epithelia is CORRECT?
A
B
C
D
E
5.
Page 3
Ribosomes
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Inclusions
Golgi vesicles
This organelle synthesises steroids in the ovary.
A
B
C
D
E
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Golgi complex
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 4
Human Biology I
10. Two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. Solution A has a higher
concentration of a nonpermeating solute than solution B. We can expect then that:
A
B
C
D
E
water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A.
water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution A to B.
neither the solute nor water will diffuse.
the solute will pass down its concentration gradient from solution A to B.
the solute will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A.
11. What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed?
A
B
C
D
E
Exocytosis
Ciliary action
Active transport
Protein synthesis
Osmosis
12. Tarsiers (Tarsiiformes) are important in primate taxonomy because:
A
B
C
D
E
they are the earliest prosimian.
they are an intermediate form with characteristics of both Prosimii and
Anthropoidea.
they are the oldest New World monkey.
they are a solitary diurnal monkey and this is unusual in primates.
they are one of very few primate species to live in East Asia.
13. You are given an unknown primate with the following characteristics: post-orbital plate, ischial
callosities, longer forelimb than hindlimb. Which of the following is the most exclusive
taxonomic group into which you can be sure to classify it correctly?
A
B
C
D
E
Prosimii
Cercopithecoidea
Catarrhini
Hominoidea
Pongidae
14. A primate species with strong, pre-mating male-to-male competition for access to fertile
females will commonly result in which of the following sets of observations?
A
B
C
D
E
Males larger than females in body size and in canine size, and with large testes
relative to body size.
Males larger than females in body size and in canine size, and living in single male
groups.
Males and females more similar in body size but males with relatively large testes.
Males larger than females in body size, but similar in canine size to females, and
living in multi-male groups.
Males larger than females in body size, larger canine size than females, and with
normal to small testes relative to body size.
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 5
Human Biology I
15. The earliest Australopithecines are characterized by:
A
B
C
D
E
an increase in brain size and bipedality.
bipedality and reduced molar size but not increased brain size.
bipedality and reduced canine size but not molar size.
bipedality and shift in diet to more fibrous items.
none of the above.
16. If we want to study the convergent evolution of monogamy, we might logically compare:
A
B
C
D
E
chimpanzees and humans.
gorillas and humans.
gibbons and humans.
orang-utans and humans.
none of the above as only humans are truly monogamous.
17. The Paranthropus are best characterized by which of the following statements?
A
B
C
D
E
A small-brained, large-toothed genus of hominin that was an evolutionary dead end.
A small-brained, large-toothed genus of hominin that gave rise to Homo habilis.
A small-brained, bipedal genus that preceded the Australopithecines.
A larger-brained, large-toothed intermediary genus appearing between
Australopithecus and Homo.
A small-brained, small-toothed genus of hominin that was an evolutionary dead end.
18. Homo ergaster is characterized correctly by which of the following:
A
B
C
D
E
substantial increase in average brain size and bi-faced stone tools.
use of controlled fire.
most abundant in East Asia.
A and B.
A and B and C.
19. Neanderthals and modern humans are currently thought to:
A
B
C
D
E
be two subspecies of one species.
be sister species with no gene flow.
be sister species with limited gene flow.
be ancestral and derived species.
have differentiated prior to leaving Africa.
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 6
Human Biology I
20. Which statement about the testes is CORRECT?
A
B
C
D
E
Sertoli cells of the testes secrete testosterone.
Leydig cells of the testes form the blood-testis barrier.
The pampiniform plexus of veins acts to maintain testicular temperature at about
37oC.
The testes are made up of numerous separate seminiferous tubules arranged into
lobules.
Sperm maturation occurs in the testes.
21. Which statement about the uterus is CORRECT?
A
B
C
D
E
The inner lining of the uterus is called the myometrium.
At full term pregnancy the uterus weighs about 1 kg.
Fertilization usually takes place in the uterus.
The neck of the uterus which protrudes into the vagina is called the fundus.
Myometrium is shed during menstruation.
22. Which of the following is a CORRECT example of a negative feedback system?
A
B
C
D
E
Testosterone reducing anterior pituitary secretion of LH.
Estrogen inducing the LH surge at ovulation.
Oxytocin inducing myometrial contractions.
Inhibin secretion by the sertoli cells increasing leydig cell testosterone secretion.
All of the above are examples of negative feedback.
23. Which statement is CORRECT? Fertilization:
A
B
C
D
E
results in the formation of a haploid zygote.
occurs between a primary oocyte and a sperm cell.
is the trigger for the oocyte to complete its second meiotic division.
occurs in the female ovary.
results in breakdown and removal of the zona pellucida.
24. Which statement about implantation is CORRECT?
A
B
C
D
E
The inner cell mass secretes enzymes to facilitate implantation by the embryo.
The embryo is fully implanted by the end of the first week after fertilization.
Normal implantation takes place in the uterine tube.
As the embryo attaches to the endometrium, the inner cell mass differentiates into
syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast.
The blastocyst must hatch from the zona pellucida for implantation.
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 7
Human Biology I
25. Which statement about embryonic folding is CORRECT?
A
B
C
D
E
Folding occurs during the second week of embryological development.
Folding is the process of forming the neural tube.
The embryo folds towards its ventral surface.
Rapid growth of the neuroectoderm initiates lateral folding of the embryo.
Folding results in a gut tube lined by ectoderm.
26. Epiblast gives rise to all of the following structures EXCEPT?
A
B
C
D
E
Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm
Yolk sac
Aminon
27. Which statement about birth is CORRECT?
A
B
C
D
E
Full dilation of the cervix marks the end of the first stage of labour.
Progesterone increases the sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin and prostaglandins.
Cervical stretching stimulates prostaglandin release from the posterior pituitary.
The second stage of labour is the longest stage, lasting about 8 hours on average.
Normal length of human gestation from conception to birth is 32 weeks.
28. New contraceptive technology. An anti-hCG vaccine would provide contraceptive protection
by:
A
B
C
D
E
preventing sperm from binding to the zona pellucida of the oocyte.
preventing implantation.
changing the consistency of the cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetrating the
uterus.
inhibiting sperm survival in the uterus.
inhibiting ovulation.
29. Which statement about cloning is CORRECT?
A
B
C
D
E
Most cloned animals show a normal pattern of development and aging.
Therapeutic cloning involves transfer of a cloned embryo to a female’s uterus and
allowing it to develop to term.
Dizygotic twins are natural clones.
Parthenogenic individuals have only the paternal genome.
Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) is the technique used for reproductive and
therapeutic cloning.
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 8
Human Biology I
30. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
Charles Darwin thought that comparative anatomy was irrelevant to the idea of
evolution.
Charles Darwin invented evolution.
Some life forms found living on Earth today cannot be explained by evolution.
There were dark peppered moths in England before the Industrial Revolution.
There are no examples of anagenesis in the fossil record.
31. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
The realization that the earth was continually changing had little impact on the
development of Darwin's theory of evolution.
Evolution always leads to increased size.
The hypothetico-deductive process does not require the generation of 'ideas'.
Evolution requires genetic variation.
Most attempts to change a character in a species by artificial selection have been
unsuccessful.
32. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
Natural selection is a process whereby a feature increases in frequency because it
endows on individuals superior reproductive capacity.
The many colour forms of budgerigars (budgies) is an example of sexual selection.
The oldest fossils date back about 3.5 million years.
Analogous features are those shared by organisms because they share a common
ancestry.
Cladogenesis is an evolutionary change over time within a single lineage.
33. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
Macroevolution is an entirely different process to microevolution.
Sexual selection can produce features that reduce survival.
Most continents drift a few metres each year.
The genetic code is an example of an analogy.
Adaptive radiation is a type of solar radiation that produces mutations.
34. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
Homologous chromosomes always have identical genes.
'Nature and nurture' means 'fathers and mothers'.
Segregation is the separation of allelic genes during meiosis.
Matings between two individuals expressing a dominant phenotype always produce
offspring with the dominant phenotype.
For a monogenic trait, two individuals with the same phenotype will always have the
same genotype.
35. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
All genes code for protein.
Introns code for polypeptides.
DNA replication produces two identical chromatids.
Translation is the synthesis of mRNA.
Each tRNA contains a codon that is specific to an amino acid.
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 9
Human Biology I
36. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
Inversions cause frameshift mutations.
Most measured mutation rates in human populations are about 5 per thousand genes
per generation.
UV light is not mutagenic.
Mutation is a change in the genetic code.
Missense mutations result in a change in the amino acid sequence in a protein.
37. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
Inborn errors of metabolism are usually due to errors in translation.
Inborn errors of metabolism are usually due to an excess of an active enzyme.
Inborn errors of metabolism are generally dominant because usually one copy of the
normal gene is enough for normal function.
Inborn errors of metabolism are sometimes detected when drugs are used for medical
treatment.
Altering the environment cannot change the effect of a gene.
38. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
Each mitotic cell division includes synapsis during prophase.
A pair of non-sister chromatids joined at the centromere makes a chromosome.
Metacentric chromosomes have a centromere near one end.
The great apes have 44 chromosomes.
The frequency of chromosomal abnormalities in new-born children is about 1/150.
39. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
Agglutination is the coagulation of red blood cells.
A newborn child could suffer from haemolytic disease if the father is Rh+ and the
mother is Rh- and the child is Rh+.
The locus determining ABO blood groups codes for antibodies on the surface of red
blood cells.
The frequencies of the HLA genes are very similar in all human populations.
Individuals who are 'A positive' will have antigen A, anti-A, and anti-D.
40. One statement is CORRECT.
A
B
C
D
E
Disease with a genetic cause is common.
Proof of paternity is usually achieved using one genetic polymorphism.
If all XYY males were sterilised, the condition would be eliminated.
Genetic polymorphisms are not very useful for identifying the source of forensic
specimens.
Amniocentesis for prenatal diagnosis of genetic disease is usually performed at 6-8
weeks of pregnancy.
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 10
Human Biology I
School of Anatomy, Physiology & Human Biology
SEMESTER 1, 2012 EXAMINATIONS
ANHB1101
Human Biology I
FAMILY NAME:____________________________
GIVEN NAMES: ______________________
STUDENT ID:
SIGNATURE: ________________________
This Paper Contains: 16 pages (including title page)
Section A pages 1 – 9
Section B pages 10 - 16
Time allowed: 2 hours 10 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
Write your personal details in the space above.
2.
Write your answers on this question paper in the appropriate places.
3.
Write in blue or black pen, NOT pencil.
4
Answer ALL 6 questions in this section.
5
Page numbers in this section continue on from section A.
6.
This section contributes 60% to the total value of this exam. Each question is of equal value.
For examiners use only
1
2
3
4
5
6
TOTAL / 60
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 11
Human Biology I
QUESTION 1.
i)
Choose the correct numbers from the diagram of the skin, to match the descriptions given.
Secretions from this structure help to keep the skin supple
This layer of the skin is mainly dense irregular connective tissue
This structure is concerned with temperature regulation
Contraction of this structure causes hairs to stand up
This layer of the skin is avascular
(5 marks)
ii)
Which of the three embryonic germ layers give rise to the following structures (numbered
on the diagram)?
3
8
6
(3 marks)
iii)
Explain why cutting hair is not painful but pulling hair out is painful.
(2 marks)
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 12
Human Biology I
QUESTION 2.
A mating between first cousins produced twin girls, one of whom was affected by a rare disorder.
The other twin was unaffected.
i)
On the diagram above complete the pedigree for this family by drawing in the appropriate
lines.
(2 marks)
ii)
Is the mode of inheritance of this disorder most likely dominant or recessive? Give a reason
for your answer.
(2 marks)
iii)
Is the disorder most likely autosomal or X-linked? Give a reason for your answer.
(2 marks)
iv)
On the diagram clearly label each individual with all possible genotypes. For the offspring,
also label the probability of their genotype.
(4 marks)
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 13
Human Biology I
QUESTION 3.
i)
Fill in the table by choosing an example from the list provided that best fits the description
for each of the following three types of primate.
Choose from: chimpanzee, lemur, gibbon, tarsier, spider monkey, baboon, marmoset,
orang-utan, loris.
Primate A: post-orbital bar and plate, dental formula
2.1.2.3/2.1.2.3, bilophodont molars, ischial callosities, flat nails,
presence of a tail, found in Africa and Asia, quadrupedal.
Primate B: post-orbital bar and plate, dental formula
2.1.2.3/2.1.2.3, Y5 molar, ischial callosities, flat nails, no tail,
found in Asia, brachiator.
Primate C: post-orbital bar, dental formula 2.1.3.3/2.1.3.3, dental
comb, some claws, presence of a tail, found only in Madagascar,
quadrupedal.
(3 marks)
ii)
Name 2 skeletal or dental features that would allow you to classify a primate as a Tarsier.
(2 marks)
iii)
Name 2 skeletal or dental features that would allow you to classify Homo habilis as a
member of the super-family Hominoidea.
(2 marks)
iv)
Compared to other mammals, which of the following features are derived with respect to the
Suborder Anthropoidea: mammary glands, nails on all digits, pentydactyl limb, continuous
hairy upper lip, notochord, hair.
(1 mark)
v)
Explain why these features are considered derived and not ancestral.
(2 marks)
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 14
Human Biology I
QUESTION 4.
i)
The diagram below shows the sex chromosomes in a cell undergoing meiosis. Draw the
cells resulting from each division if non-disjunction of the sex chromosomes occurs in the
first meiotic division (assume there is no crossing over and that the second meiotic division
is normal).
(4 marks)
1
2
3
4
The gametes resulting from the 2nd meiotic division are numbered 1 -4. For each of gametes
1 and 4 indicate what the Karyotype of the resulting individual will be and what syndrome
that represents
ii)
Gamete
Karyotype
Syndrome
1
4
(4 marks)
iii)
Name the cells resulting from the first and second meiotic divisions shown above.
(2 marks)
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 15
Human Biology I
QUESTION 5.
i)
ii)
Match the terms in the table with the letters on the diagrams of the implanting blastocyst
(note images not to scale).
(4 marks)
Chorionic cavity
Epiblast
Yolk sac
Inner cell mass
Hypoblast
Syncytiotrophoblast
Cytotrophoblast
Connecting stalk
What structure has disappeared between figure 1 and figure 2? What is this process called
and why is it necessary?
(3 marks)
iii)
Name the process that transforms the bilaminar embryo into a trilaminar embryo.
(1 mark)
iv)
Name the primary germ layers of the trilaminar embryo and the layer of the bilaminar
embryo from which they originate. Be sure to specify which is which.
(2 marks)
Semester 1 2012 Examinations
Page 16
Human Biology I
QUESTION 6.
Match the letters on the diagram of the female reproductive tract with the features listed.
Endometrium
Corpus Luteum
Cervix
Vagina
Myometrium
Fimbriae
(3 marks)
A student was reading about the progesterone only contraceptive implant “Implanon”. She read
that it prevented sperm entering the uterus and wondered how it worked. Explain the biology of
this effect.
(2 marks)
What hormone is responsible for rebuilding of the endometrium after menstruation?
(1 mark)
A woman takes the hormonally active pills of her combined oral contraceptive every day for 3
months. During this time she does not experience any menstrual bleeding. She goes on holiday for
one week and forgets to take her pills. Within two days she has experienced a menstrual bleed.
Explain the biology of behind this pattern of menstrual bleeding.
(4 marks)