Micro module 4 exam practice questions
1. True or false differential media is best suited for distinguishing between two similar species of
bacteria.
Growth media does not contain restrictive factors, while selective media is best used to encourage the
growth of one microbe while simultaneously discouraging the growth of the other. Since 2 similar species
of microbes are being studied, they must be differentiated under similar but just slightly different
conditions (Differential media)
2. A researcher is asked to determine which of two vials contains E coli and which contains Salmonella.
Knowing both are Gram negative, while only one of them is capable of fermenting lactose, which type of
media would best be suited?
A. Growth Media
B. Selective media
C. Differential media distinguishes between two, often related, microbes.
D. Non-selective and non-differential media
3. What are the requirements of a fastidious microbe?
A fastidious microbe is an Organism with complex growth requirements such that if absent it will not
grow. Enriched medias thus contain these specific and essential nutrients required for the growth of a
particular subset of microorganisms.
4. True or false? LB Agar is classified as a selective non differential media.
LB Agar is the most basic type of Agar and like LB media, supports the growth of virtually all microbes
without restriction.
5. What is Agar used for in microbiology?
Agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow.
6. Blood Agar is which type of medium? Select all that apply:
A. Differential- Blood Agar can be used to differential between species. Based-hemolytic activity.
B. Selective and differential
C. Enriched
D. Selective
7. Match the following hemolytic Class with its description of activity.
1. Alpha hemolysis – Greenish-brown color- Incomplete hemolytic activity
2. Beta hemolysis - Distinct zone of clearing- Complete hemolytic activity
3. Gamma hemolysis – No change- No hemolytic activity
8. Columbia CNA Agar is used to isolate.
A. Gram positive- CNA Agar restricts gram (-) microbes. Only gram (+) microbes will grow.
B. Mycobacteria
C. Gram negative
D. Gram positive and gram negative
9. True or false? Chocolate is not a component of chocolate Agar plates.
The name is derived based on the color that comes from the presence of cooked, red blood cells in media.
10. An unknown microbe is streaked onto it MacConkey Agar plate. After an overnight incubation at
37°C, growth is observed. Would a gram stain be necessary? Why or why not?
No, a gram stain would not be necessary, as only gram (-) microbes will grow on MacConkey agar.
11. In an attempt to detect the presence of the pathogenic strain of E coli 0157:H7. A researcher spread
a culture onto the MacConkey Agar with failed results. What type of Agar should they correctly try next?
Why?
The microbe should be plated on SMAC (Sorbitol MacConkey Agar.) As it is specifically formulated to
detect 0157:H7. Pathogenic E coli cannot ferment sorbitol while Non-pathogenic E coli can ferment both
sorbitol and lactose. Therefore, colonies that ferment (acidic conditions; non-pathogenic) can be
differentiated from non-fermenters (neutral to basic conditions; pathogenic.)
12. In Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar, What color indicates the presence of E coli?
Metallic green.
13. Mannitol salt Agar will turn what color in the presence of the pathogenic strain Staphylococcus
aureus?
Yellow pathogenic staph aureus will turn the Agar from red to yellow.
14. What is the process of spreading a bacterial culture onto a Petri dish called?
Plating.
15. Describe the primary advantage of using a Petri dish over growing a liquid culture.
The primary advantage is that cells are held into place. When grown in a nutrient broth, bacterial cells
can multiply but are free to move around in solution. When grown on Agar within a Petri dish, they are
fixed In such a way as to form colonies.
16. True or false? The Visualization of colonies on a Petri dish represents bacterial cells that have often
multiplied a million times over.
To form a bacterial colony, the initial cell must have multiplied many times, often > 1 mil for the eye to
see it.
17. True or false? The purpose of a quadrant streak is to expand a bacterial population.
Quadrant streak purpose is to make individual colonies so a single pure bacterial sample can be isolated.
18. To be considered a pure culture, the sample (1) can be tracked back to a single cell and (2)_____.
The culture must be free from external contaminants.
19. A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalized plating strategy?
A quadrant streak (phase dilution)
20. And what phase of dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria like
P2 or P4?The phases rank from highest concentration to lowest. P1 > P2 > P3 > P4.
21. True or false: when performing a Dilution streak. A new or sterilized loop is not required for each
phase as long as the bacterial culture is pure
A new or sterilized loop is absolutely required for each phase. Failure to do so would prevent the
establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial concentration would be spread across both
phase regions, regardless of whether or not the culture is pure.
22. In order to encourage growth of a slow growing microbe, what might a researcher do during a phase
dilution streak?
A researcher may either opt to perform only a three phase dilution streak or pass the loop through the
previous phase multiple times (As opposed to only once).
23. True or false? To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe, a researcher might decrease an
incubator from 37°C to 25°C.
Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37°C. Researchers may
set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth.
24. When given an unknown bacterial sample, the first step is to expand the current bacterial
population. Which form of media best suits its needs and why?
1. MSA Agar
2. LB Media. All other options are all forms of selective media, meaning they may potentially
inhibit the growth of the unknown sample. The culture should be first expanded and then
placed onto selective/differential Agar plates.
3. MacConkey Agar
4. Columbia CNA Agar.
Exam questions from- Portage micro 171 module 4- DOUBLE CHECK THESE ANSWERS
2. A researcher is asked to determine if a sample contains Neisseria meningitides. Knowing Neisseria
meningitides is slow growing and other foreign microbes may also be present in the culture, which type
of media would be best suited?
A. Selective media- If additional foreign microbes may be present in your sample and you know
Neisseria meningitides is slow growing, you must restrict the unwanted microbes while
Supporting the growth of Neisseria meningitides. Thus, you are selectively encouraging one
microbes growth, while selectively restricting others.
B. Selective and Differential media
C. Growth media
D. Differential media
8. Columbia CNA agar is most closely related to which media:
A. Trypticase Soy Agar
B. MacConkey Agar
C. Blood agar- CNA agar is similar to BAP as it is also enriched with blood and allows for
differentiation based on hemolytic patterns
D. EMB agar
9. True or False: Chocolate agar gets its brown color from cocoa to produce an enriched media.
Chocolate is never added to the media. The name is derived based on the color that comes from the
presence of ‘cooked’ (lysed) red blood cells in the media
10. A researcher is studying a strain of E. coli currently growing on a MacConkey plate. However, the
researcher can’t remember if E. coli is Gram-positive or Gram-negative. Would a Gram stain be
necessary to confirm? Why or why not?
No. A Gram stain would not be necessary, as only Gram-Negative microbes will grow on MacConkey
agar. Thus, E. coli is a Gram-Negative microbe
12. What is the Gram status (positive or negative) of microbes growing on Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB)
agar plates?
Gram-Negative. EMB plates specifically restrict the growth of Gram-Positive bacteria.
13. Which type of agar media is best suited to support the growth of Staphylococcus?
A. Mannitol salt agar
B. Columbia CNA agar
C. Blood agar
D. Chocolate agar
E. MacConkey agar
16. True or False: The visualization of colonies on a petri dish represents bacterial cells that have often
multiplied a million times over.
18. Which of the following are correct in order to be considered a pure culture? Select all that apply.
Obtained by pour plate serial dilution method
Obtained by a 4-phase dilution streak method
Obtained by a serial dilution method
Free from contaminants
Single organism
Long lifespan
Multiple species
20. In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the highest concentration of bacteria, P2
or P4?
Highest concentration would be P2
21. True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each
phase.
Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial
concentration would be spread across both phase regions.
22. What might a researcher do to restrict growth of a microbe with a short generation time that has
already been streaked on an agar plate?
Decrease incubation time OR incubate at a different (lower) temperature
23. True or False. Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow slower than normal non-pathogenic
bacterial strains.
Exam 4 – Practice questions 3- All exams-N/a
1. True or False: Growth media is best suited for distinguishing between two similar species of bacteria.
Growth media is designed to simply support (and not restrict) microbial growth.
2. In order to visual individual colonies of bacteria would you culture your sample in a liquid media or on
a solid (agar) media? Why?
Solid (agar) media. The primary advantage is that cells are held into place. When grown in a nutrient
broth, bacterial cells can multiply but are free to move around in solution. When grown on agar within a
petri dish the fixed in such as way as to form colonies.
3. When performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across the plate in such a way as to form
what?
A dilution gradient is formed. The resulting gradient should always contain within it the growth of
individual colonies.
Question 1
Identify the following disease
A. Tetanus
B. Anthrax —the distinct black center at the site of infection
is a hallmark of anthrax infection
C. Gas gangrene
D. Frost bite
Question 2
A 5-month-old child is given honey at breakfast and begins showing symptoms consistent with botulism.
Would the child’s illness be classified as foodborne, infant, or wound botulism?
Infant. Although food (honey) is consumed, foodborne botulism is derived from improperly canned, low
acid foods under anaerobic conditions. Such conditions were not described. No puncture wounds or
injuries were described, ruling out wound. The child is suffering from infant botulism, as honey is a
potential carrier of clostridium. The intestinal track of young children is still developing and clostridium
is able to colonize and produce the associated toxin.
Question 3
Identify the medical condition characterized by robust carbohydrate fermentation under anaerobic
conditions, swelling of the infected areas and fever.
Gas gangrene. The key identifier here is the robust carbohydrate fermentation, which manifests as
intense gas production and swelling—both trademark conditions of gas gangrene
Question 4
Which form of the plague is the rarest? What does it target?
Septicemic plague is the rarest and it targets the blood system.
Question 5
The concept of treating all samples, whether known or unknown, as potentially hazardous (or
pathogenic) materials is known as __________. Universal precautions
Question 6
List at least 3 observations a researcher would be sure to note while assessing an unknown microbial
sample.
A lab researcher would be certain to note:
1. Size and shape
2. Any observable motility
3. Gram status (positive or negative)
4. The presence of any chemical reactions
5. Changes in color localized to the organism or the surrounding media
6. Capture (or draw) images of any of the characteristics described above
Question 7
While observing an unknown sample of limited amounts, a researcher must determine the following
observations: (1) the presence of any motility and (2) its Gram status using the same sample—the liquid
sample cannot be divided. Which would you determine first and why?
You must determine motility before determining the Gram status. Motility requires a wet mount, while
Gram staining requires heat fixing the sample. If one were to begin with the Gram stain the heat fixation
process would kill the organism, making any observations regarding motility impossible. The correct
approach would be to place the liquid culture on a glass slide and determine its motility status. Next, the
same liquid culture can be heat fixed and Gram stained.
Question 8
A facultative anaerobe is a microorganism capable of growth under what conditions?
A facultative anaerobe is capable of growth under aerobic (with oxygen) and anaerobic (without oxygen)
conditions.
Question 9
As Streptococcus is catalase negative would it thrive or die in the presence of peroxides? Why?
Streptococcus would not survive in the presence of peroxides—it is unable to breakdown peroxides
(catalase negative). Left unchecked, peroxides would damage the cellular integrity of Strep causing
lysis/cell death.
Question 10
Streptococcus is most often streaked onto:
Blood agar plates to determine its hemolytic properties, which aids in the classification (and
differentiation) process.
EMB agar
Spirit Blue agar
Chocolate agar
Question 11
The distinctions for Lancefield subgroupings lie in its: (select all that apply)
Catalase activity
Carbohydrate composition of antigens (present in the cell wall determines the Lancefield groupings)
ALL strep under Lancefield groupings are catalase negative and beta hemolytic.
Hemolytic activity
All of the above
Question 12
Left untreated, strep throat can progress to ______ , which displays _____ hemolytic activity.
Rheumatic fever; beta
Strep throat (also known as strep. Pharyngitis) can lead to Rheumatic fever if left untreated.
Strep. Pharyngitis displays beta-hemolytic activity.
Strep. Pharyngitis; beta
Strep. Septicemia; gamma
Strep. Pharyngitis; alpha
Question 13
When a bacterium neither harms nor benefits from the host from which it obtains nutrients, it is
referred to as being ___________. Commensal
Question 14
Syphilis is caused by:
Gram-Negative spirochete
Question 15
The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is associated with which medical condition caused by Gram-positive
anaerobic bacteria?
Gas Gangrene
Tetanus
Leprosy
Botulism
Question 16
Match the following diseases with their respective symptoms if left untreated:
1.Gonorrhea - Cardiac and neurological complications
2. Syphilis -- Paralysis, blindness and dementia
3. Chlamydia -- Infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease.
Question 17
What causes these?
1. Painfully swollen lymph nodes- Bubonic plague
2. Respiratory failure associated with lock-jaw- Tetanus
3. Sore throat, ocular discharge and fever- Conjunctivitis
Question 18
Define the concept of universal precautions. Universal precautions means any and all samples, whether
known or unknown, are to be treated as potentially hazardous (or pathogenic) materials.
Question 19
Identify the disease based on the following (select all that apply): It is a small, acid-fast rod usually
remaining asymptomatic for up to 20 years. It affects the skin, nerves, upper respiratory tract and eyes
of infected individuals.
A. Tuberculosis
B. Leprosy is characterized by its ability to remain dormant for up to 20 years as well as the
effects observed relative to the patients skin, nerves, lungs and eyes.
C. Scalded-skin syndrome
D. Hansen’s disease- Another name for Leprosy.
E. Bacterial conjunctivitis
Question 20
Define commensal bacteria.
The bacterium neither harms nor benefits from the host from which it obtains nutrients.
Question 21
How can Staphylococcus be differentially tested?
Staphylococcus species are capable of growth in the presence of bile salts
Question 22
Match the following symptoms with their respective diseases:
1. Folliculitis- Pus-filled lesions on skin or hair
2. Scalded-skin syndrome- Ruptured pustules; treated with Penicillin
3. Impetigo- Childhood skin disease near mouth/nose
4. Conjunctivitis- Infection of thin, transparent scleral tissue
5. Ophthalmia Neonatorum- Infection occurs at time of birth
Question 23
While visiting his grandparents, a 10-year-old child has green beans for dinner that were harvested from
his grandparents’ garden and canned the previous year. Severe illness sets in, and the child is taken to
the hospital. Botulism is suspected, but what form? Explain your answer.
Foodborne botulism. The child is too old (> 6 months) to be considered for infant botulism and wounds
were not present. The green beans were likely improperly canned and under the low-acidic, anaerobic
conditions, bacterial growth was encouraged.
Question 24
Describe the symptoms and treatment regimen for someone infected with Clostridium perfringens:
Clostridium perfringens (also known as Gas gangrene) presents with muscle necrosis, swelling of
infected areas, fever and intense gas production. Treatment entails removal of all infected tissue, often
resulting in amputation of the affected areas, in conjunction with heavy antibiotic therapies.
Question 25
Why does the alpha toxin (perfringolysin), produced during an infection of gas gangrene, cause cell
death? The toxin perforates the membrane. It forms pores in the plasma membrane of host cells
resulting in uncontrolled ion fluxes and eventually cell lysis and death.
Question 26
You develop a fever, chills and pneumonia after recently using a warm midst vaporizer in an attempt to
open your sinuses. What bacterial disease would a doctor suspect is causing your symptoms? Would the
doctor suspect you contracted it from touching (potentially) contaminated doorknobs? Legionnaires.
No—legionella cannot be spread simply by direct contact between people. Legionella can only be
transmitted through droplets small enough to be breathed in.
Question 27
Which form of the plague is highly virulent? What does it target?
Pneumonic plague is highly virulent and targets the respiratory (lungs) system.
Question 28
Rheumatic fever displays ______ hemolytic activity and occurs when _______ is left untreated.
Beta; Strep. Pharyngitis
Strep throat (also known as strep. Pharyngitis) can lead to Rheumatic fever if left untreated and displays
beta-hemolytic activity.
X Beta; Rheumatic fever
X Alpha; Strep. Pharyngitis
X Gamma; Strep. Septicemia
Question 29
Gonorrhea is caused by:
A. Diplococcic bacteria
Question 30
Match the step of infection to its description.
Invasion - Pathogen passes through or between cells to access deeper tissues and nutrients
Evasion - Pathogen suppresses host’s immune system so it can continue replicating
Transmission - Pathogen is passed to another host to restart lifecycle
Question 31
True or False. An acid-fast stain is best suited to identify tuberculosis (as opposed to a Gram stain).
TB shows a poor Gram stain and should be screened via an acid-fast stain.
Question 32
True or False. Although TB must be inhaled and reside in the lung in order to cause infection, TB can also
spread to the brain, spine, and kidneys. TB can move systemically through the blood to infect other areas
(brain, spine and kidney). However, when located outside of the lung, TB tends to be non infectious
Question 33
True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus. Although the symptoms can be treated it is only
to manage the discomfort not to cure.
Question 34
True or False. Pneumonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes.
Pneumonic plague targets the respiratory system while bubonic targets the lymph system.
Question 35
True or False. The Lancefield groups are used to subdivide antigenic groups of gamma-hemolytic
Streptococcus. The Lancefield groupings are used to subdivide beta-hemolytic Strep.
Question 36
True or False. Under most circumstances, staphylococcus can be found in 30% of human population
where it remains pathogenic.
Question 37
True or False. Chlamydia trachomatis can be grown on an agar plate alone.
Chlamydia is an obligate parasite and requires a host (viable cells) for its growth.
Question 38
True or False. Staphylococcus is the only causative agent of conjunctivitis.
There are bacterial (staph) and viral forms of conjunctivitis, both resulting in the inflammation of the
conjunctiva and ‘pink eye.’
Question 39
True or False. Directly ingesting clostridium or its associated spores will not cause illness in adults
Question 40
True or False. The Lancefield groups are used to subdivide antigenic groups of alpha-hemolytic
Streptococcus. The Lancefield groupings are used to subdivide beta-hemolytic Strep.
Question 41
True or False. Under most circumstances, staphylococcus can be found in ~80% of human population
where it remains non-symptomatic. Staphylococcus in only found (non-symptomatic) in ~30% of the
human population.
Question 42
True or False. Although there is no cure for tetanus, it can be prevented through vaccination
Question 43
True or False. The causative agent of conjunctivitis can be either bacterial or viral.
There are bacterial (staph) and viral forms of conjunctivitis, both resulting in the inflammation of
the conjunctiva and ‘pink eye.’
Question 44
True or False. Tuberculosis is best identified by a Gram stain.
Question 45
True or False. When located outside of the lung, TB is usually non-infectious.
Question 46
True or False. Under most circumstances, staphylococcus can be found in ~80% of human population
where it remains non-symptomatic. Staphylococcus in only found (non-symptomatic) in ~30% of the
human population.
Question 47
True or False. The causative agent of conjunctivitis can be either bacterial or viral.
Question 48
True or False. Tuberculosis is best identified by a Gram stain. Mycobacterium show poor Gram staining
and w/an acid-fast stain.
Question 49
True or False. You can become infected with TB simply by sharing a drink with someone who is currently
infected with TB.
Question 50
True or false: Only directly ingesting the pre-formed Clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its
spores) will cause disease in adults. The mature (adult) microbiota is capable of killing the
bacteria/spores.
Question 51
True or False. Bubonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes.
Question 52
True or False: The Lancefield groupings are used to subdivide beta-hemolytic Strep.
Question 23
True or False: Septicemic plague targets the respiratory system
True or False: Septicemic plague targets the blood
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
True or False:
Can viruses be classified as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic microorganisms?
No, they are considered obligate intracellular parasites No. Viruses are neither prokaryotic nor
eukaryotic
What is an obligate intracellular parasite?
Your Answer: Obligate intracellular parasite can't replicate on their own and need a living host
As an obligate intracellular parasite, viruses cannot (obligate) replicate unless inside
(intracellular) a living host cell. As a parasite, a virus depends on its living host to provide the
framework (proteins, etc) to replicate—to make additional copies of itself.
What is a viral capsid?
Your Answer: A protective structure, similar to a membrane, containing genetic material
The capsid is a membrane-like protective structure that contains the genetic material, similar to
the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.
What is the viral envelope, and what does the presence (or absence) of it tell you about the
type of virus?
Your Answer: A viral envelope is an additional membrane taken from the host cell membrane,
that surrounds the capsid. The presence or absence can help to distinguish it is an animal virus
(usually enveloped) or a plant/bacteria (non-enveloped) infecting virus.
The envelope surrounds the viral capsid, is derived from the host cell membrane and serves as
an additional barrier to the external environment. The overwhelming majority of animal viruses
are enveloped whereas the majority of plant or bacteria-infecting viruses are not
What type of microscope would be used to study the shape of a viral capsid?
Your Answer: Electron microscope
How does the viral envelope both aid in cell entry as well as hide it from being detected by the
immune system?
Your Answer: The envelope is copied from the host cell membrane, which hides the virus. Now
the virus appears to be a normal host cell, this helps it evade detection from the immune
response. The proteins on the virus find and link to compatible proteins on the host cell, which
then fuses with the membrane to gain entry
The viral envelope contains the necessary proteins required for interaction with host cells. As
the envelope is derived from the host cell membrane, this camouflages the virus and lowers the
likelihood of immune detection by making it appear similar to the normal biological host cell
What must happen before viral replication of its genome can occur?
Your Answer: Attachment and entry
What is a bacteriophage?
Your Answer: Type of virus that infects bacteria
What structural aspects make bacteriophages distinct from viruses that infect either animals or
plants?
Your Answer: 20 sided polygon capsid head group that contain viral genomes with a helical tail
that have tail fibers (extensions) that help bind it to the host. They do not pass their capsid into
host cell, but the helical tail penetrates and shoots the viral genome through the tail and into
the cytoplasm. Infections have not been found in plants or animals.
Bacteriophages possess an icosahedral capsid head group and a helical tail. Attached to the tail
are fibrous extensions or ‘legs’ that aid in binding host cells. Notably, this particular structural
arrangement has not been observed among viruses that infect either animals or plants.
Which viral replicative process results in the destruction of the host cell?
Your Answer: Lytic replication
The lytic replication cycle occurs when a bacteriophage replicates within a host until it ruptures,
effectively destroying the host bacterial cell. The phrase lytic stems from ‘lysis’, meaning to
rupture or disintegrate (breakdown) a cell
Describe the appearance of a bacterial culture infected with virus at the time of infection versus
later once viral replication is occurring at a high rate.
Your Answer: At the time of infection there is high degree of turbidity (cloudiness). As the lytic
cycle precedes the more the bacterial cells die off. As they do, the media starts and continues
to turn get clear
During the initial inoculation of virus and bacteria, the media has a high degree of turbidity
(cloudiness). However, as the lytic cycle progresses and more and more bacterial cells are
destroyed, the culture media turns from turbid to clear, as turbidity is a function of the number
of intact bacterial cells present in the media. Thus, as bacterial cell numbers decrease due to
lysis, the media becomes clearer.
To what family of viruses does rubella come from and how is it transmitted?
Your Answer: Togaviridae, transmitted by airborne particles
Rubella virus belongs to a family of viruses called Togaviridae. Rubella is transmitted via airborne particles such as when a person coughs.
What is the common name for rubeola, and is it a DNA or RNA virus?
Your Answer: Measles and it is an RNA virus
Rubeola is commonly referred to as the measles and belongs to the family of viruses called
Paramyxovirus. Rubeola viruses are RNA viruses with a genome ~ 15,000 nucleotides long.
What disease state emerges as a viral reactivation of a prior infection with the varicella virus?
Your Answer: Shingles, it is a latent virus that lies dormant until activated. Causing painful, but
localized, blisters
Shingles, also known as Herpes zoster, is due to the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus
(VZV). Because VZV lies dormant in inactive nerve cells, its reactivation typically results in
painful blisters. However, unlike the initial chickenpox rash, the blisters are localized and
limited to small areas
What linear, double-stranded, enveloped DNA virus is the first virus (as of October 26, 1977) to
be declared eradicated?
Your Answer: Smallpox
Although once a major cause of death in the world, a smallpox vaccine was developed in 1796
by Edward Jenner. Global vaccination efforts have prevented smallpox from appearing in
humans since October 26, 1977, making smallpox the first infectious disease ever to be
eradicated.
What are the two key glycoproteins found in the influenza virus?
Your Answer: Hemagglutinins and neuraminidase
The viral envelope contains two key glycoproteins, hemagglutinins (HA) and neuraminidase (N).
Hemagglutinins are heavily involved in the entry of the viral particle into a host cell, while
neuraminidase proteins are involved in the budding and release of new viral particles from the
host cell.
Describe the composition of HIV.
Your Answer: HIV contains two copies of single-stranded, linear RNA that is enclosed by a cone
shaped capsid that surrounds RNA strands and is Made up of 2,000 copies of the viral protein
p24. A viral envelope surrounds the capsid. Within this envelope are two glycoproteins, gp120
and gp41, which are needed to bind and make entry into the host cell
HIV contains two copies of single-stranded, linear RNA that is enclosed by a capsid. The conical
capsid surrounds the two RNA strands and is comprised of ~2,000 copies of the viral protein
p24. A viral envelope derived from the cell host membrane then surrounds the viral capsid.
Within this envelope are two key glycoproteins, gp120 and gp41, which are essential for viral
binding and entry into the host cell.
NEW
Giemsa staining is used to detect the following except. Gonorrhea