Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory
Perspective 5th Edition Linda E. Miller Test bank
Test Bank
TbWorld2020@gmail.com
(All Chapters , 100% Verified and Original Resource)
High-Quality Format | A+ Grade | Perfect for Educators
& Students
Purchase Now to Unlock Your Academic Success!
Chapter 10 Precipitation and Agglutination Reactions
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Which antibody has the highest avidity for an antigen?
a. IgG containing Fab regions that each have an affinity of 4 x 10-8/M
b. Secretory IgA containing Fab regions that each have an affinity of 4 x 10-8/M
c. IgM containing Fab regions that each have an affinity of 1 x 10-8/M
d. IgE containing Fab regions that each have an affinity of 1 x 10-9/M
____
2. The affinity of antigen-antibody binding is influenced by which of the following?
a. How well the antigen fits into the binding site on a Fab region
b. The number of Fab sites on the immunoglobulin
c. The number of antigens in the reaction
d. The charge distribution on the Fc region
____
3. The law of mass action states that:
a. any free reactants will rapidly bind together.
b. the number of antibody-binding sites must equal the number of antigen-binding
sites.
c. free reactants are in equilibrium with bound reactants.
d. the rate of binding equals the rate of dissociation.
____
4. According to the law of mass action, K represents differences in rates between:
a. free reactants and bound reactants.
c. prozone and postzone.
b. forward and reverse reactions.
d. fab region binding on antigens.
____
5. A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a large soluble carrier, the antibody
is soluble, and the antigen and carrier bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected
macroscopically. What type of assay is described?
a. Precipitation
c. Flocculation
b. Agglutination
d. Neutralization
____
6. The process by which particulate antigens such as cells aggregate to form larger complexes when
specific antibody is present is called:
a. sensitization.
b. precipitation.
____
c. agglutination.
d. flocculation.
7. The assembly of particles into visible clumps is called:
a. precipitation.
c. equivalence.
b. agglutination.
d. sensitization.
1
____
8. If the concentration of free antibody (Ab) = 3 mol/L, the concentration of free antigen (Ag) = 2
mol/L, and the concentration of antigen-antibody complex = 6 mol/L, then the equilibrium constant
K equals:
a. 1.
c. 4.
b. 2.
d. 9.
____
9. Based on the following equilibrium constants, which assay would have the best sensitivity?
a. K = 1
c. K = 4
b. K = 2
d. K = 9
____ 10. The measurement of light scattered at an angle by the antigen-antibody complexes in a solution is
called:
a. turbidimetry.
b. nephelometry.
c. agglutination.
d. equivalency.
____ 11. Rate nephelometry measures the change in what factor over time?
a. Antigen concentration
c. Antigen breakdown
b. Antibody concentration
d. Antigen-antibody complex formation
____ 12. If antibody is uniformly distributed in a gel and antigen is added to a well cut into the gel, the
process is called:
a. single diffusion.
b. double diffusion.
c. immunofixation.
d. retrodiffusion.
____ 13. When both antigen and antibody diffuse independently into a gel, the process is called:
a. single diffusion.
c. immunofixation.
b. double diffusion.
d. retrodiffusion.
____ 14. A radial immunodiffusion test is run for 72 hours. The concentration of the antigen is then calculated
using the:
a. radius of the precipitation ring.
b. diameter of the precipitation ring.
c. square of the diameter of the precipitation ring.
d. log of the diameter of the precipitation ring.
____ 15. The end-point radial immunodiffusion assay:
a. is read after antigen-antibody equivalence is reached.
b. is the most rapid immunodiffusion method.
c. requires only a negative control for interpretation.
d. can be converted to a kinetic method by application of electrical current.
____ 16. If an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion pattern shows an arc equidistant between antigens A and B, this
indicates that the antigens:
a. are identical.
b. are entirely different.
c. share a common epitope, with A being more complex.
d. share a common epitope, with B being more complex.
2
____ 17. If crossed lines result in an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction with antigen A and B, this
indicates that antigens A and B:
a. are identical.
b. are entirely different.
c. share a common epitope, with A being more complex.
d. share a common epitope, with B being more complex.
____ 18. Which is a correct list for immunoglobulin chains detected in immunofixation electrophoresis?
a. Alpha, beta, gamma, lambda
c. Alpha, beta, delta, gamma
b. Gamma, alpha, mu, kappa
d. Lambda, alpha, beta, gamma
____ 19. In immunofixation electrophoresis, the first lane detects which of the following?
a. All serum proteins
c. Gamma chains
b. Alpha chains
d. Delta chains
____ 20. Which antibody class may require the use of an enhancement technique to visualize the reaction?
a. IgM
c. IgA
b. IgG
d. IgE
____ 21. Which immunoglobulin is more efficient in agglutination?
a. IgA
c. IgM
b. IgG
d. IgD
____ 22. Coombs reagent is used for what purpose?
a. To link small antigens on patient red cells
b. To enhance agglutination with IgG-coated red blood cells (RBCs)
c. To enhance agglutination with IgM-coated RBCs
d. To cause a precipitation reaction with small amounts of antibody
____ 23. The visibility of an agglutination reaction involving IgG can be enhanced by adjusting which factor?
a. Changing to a colder temperature
c. Decreasing the light to read the
reaction
b. Diluting out the particulate antigen
d. Adding anti-human Fc
____ 24. A serological test that uses RBCs coated with exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides
as a method to detect patient antibodies against those exogenous antigens is called:
a. latex agglutination.
c. neutralization.
b. hemagglutination.
d. complement fixation.
____ 25. When a patient’s RBCs combine with anti-A typing serum to produce a positive result, this reaction
is known as:
a. passive agglutination.
b. reverse passive agglutination.
c. hemagglutination.
d. flocculation.
____ 26. When carrier particles are coated with an antigen that is not normally found on them, this is known
as:
a. direct agglutination.
b. passive agglutination.
c. reverse passive agglutination.
d. hemagglutination.
3
____ 27. Which of the following is true of a reverse agglutination test?
a. The antigen is a natural particle.
b. Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles.
c. Antibody is attached to particles.
d. The antigen-antibody reaction is competitive (no agglutination indicates a positive
result).
____ 28. Which best characterizes agglutination inhibition reactions?
a. The antigen is naturally expressed on particles.
b. Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles.
c. Antibody is attached to particles.
d. No agglutination indicates a positive result.
____ 29. The particle-enhanced immunoassay methods are based on measurement of:
a. agglutinated RBCs.
c. agglutinated latex particles.
b. free antibody molecules.
d. antigen-antibody bonds.
____ 30. In performing blood typing using the tube method, if the red cell button is not resuspended properly,
what are the most likely results?
a. False positive
b. False negative
c. Does not affect the results
d. Makes the reaction weaker
____ 31. Which of the following represents a positive attribute to agglutination testing?
a. Agglutination testing is slow.
b. Agglutination testing is relatively sensitive.
c. When testing for microorganisms, the microorganism needs to be viable to detect
with agglutination.
d. Agglutination testing is expensive.
4
Chapter 10 Precipitation and Agglutination Reactions
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
ANS: B
ANS: A
ANS: C
ANS: B
ANS: A
ANS: C
ANS: B
ANS: A
ANS: D
ANS: B
ANS: D
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: B
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: C
ANS: B
ANS: D
ANS: B
ANS: C
ANS: B
ANS: C
ANS: D
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: B
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
1
1
2
2
3
3
3
4
4
5
5
6
6
7
7
8
8
9
9
10
10
11
11
12
12
12
12
13
13
14
14
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 1
MSC: Taxonomy 2
MSC: Taxonomy 2
5